False premise of Bible correctors (Part 2)

False premise of Bible correctors (Part 2)

Here is a response I got from my last post titled "False premise of Bible correctors (James White)"

"I respect you for your zeal (but even in having zeal we have to be careful - Romans 10.)

 

So I don't mean to be rude...or disrespectful to you, but not one of your arguments below hold any water at all. 

 

You, or whoever you follow, try to make everything sound like the inspired scripture is the KJV

(and to remind you, I personally use the KJV which in my opinion it is the best rendition of the "graphe" we have to date.) 

 

All of your 4 points above are totally biased. Every one of them is the result of reading "into" the Word of God with the KJV only bias.

1. By necessity only the originals were inspired - from those, copies had to be made,

     and translation of these had to be made available for people of other languages. The copies

     and the translations had better be faithful to the original "graphe."  No liberties of

      inserting arbitrary words or cultural interpretation (such as the practice of some translator

      groups including the KJV translators/interpreters.) Remember the warning in Revelation not to

      add nor take away any word to God's word (there was no KJV when He said this (there are plenty of insertions in the KJV.)

 

2. Preservation is found in the original "graphe." If the "graphe" had not been preserved we would have

     no Bible today. Warning: Don't make the 1611 KJV take over and become superior to the "graphe" which was ONCE delivered to the saints (Jude 1:3.) KJV translators attempted to "correct" the "graphe."

 

3. What in the world "bound" in this context has to do with your argument? More bias alert.

 

4. The translations here are for the specific purpose of inscripturation of God's special

revelation under the direct supervision of the Holy Spirit (not of a group of 16th century translators) as the

remainder of the "graphe" which was completed with the last word in the book of Revelation.

Blessings," 

My four points were these:

 

1.) Only the "originals were inspired".
Paul says that "ALL scripture is given by inspiration of God" and he said that right after telling Timothy that he had the "HOLY SCRIPTURES" (2 Timothy 3:15-17). If something is scripture than it is "given by inspiration of God". And guess what? NO reference in the New Testament to the word "scripture" is referring to any "originals". Peter said that the word of God "LIVETH and abideth forever" (1 Pet. 1:23-25).

2.) There is no such thing as "exact preservation" of the original autographs.
This statement makes a lie out of Ps. 12:6-7, Isa. 40:8, Isa. 55:9-11, Matt. 5:18, Matt. 24:35, Mark 13:31, Luke 21:33, 1 Pet. 1:23-25, and 2 Tim. 3:15-17.

3.) The word of God is bound to the original languages of Hebrew and Greek.
This statement makes a lie out of 2 Timothy 2:9, "Wherein I suffer trouble, as an evil doer, even unto bonds; but the word of God is not bound."

4.) There is no such thing as an inspired translation.
There's a bunch of them, see Genesis 42:18-20, 42:23, Ezra 4:7-11, Ps. 110:1 with Luke 20:42-43, Mark 5:54, Acts 22, Acts 26:14, and Matthew 27:46 with Mark 15:34. 

 

As you can see, each one of my points were backed with SCRIPTURE. Not any quotes from someone I "follow", not any opinions of mine or my favorite preacher, just SCRIPTURE. So let's examine the critique I was given on my four points....

 

CRITIC: 1. By necessity only the originals were inspired - from those, copies had to be made,

     and translation of these had to be made available for people of other languages. The copies

     and the translations had better be faithful to the original "graphe."  No liberties of

      inserting arbitrary words or cultural interpretation (such as the practice of some translator

      groups including the KJV translators/interpreters.) Remember the warning in Revelation not to

      add nor take away any word to God's word (there was no KJV when He said this (there are plenty of insertions in the KJV.)

HOSS: What do you mean, "by necessity only the originals were inspired" ? Do you have a verse that says that? Because my final authority says "The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever." and it also says "Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.  For all flesh is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away: But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you."

 

If you'll notice those verses of scripture, we have the word of God being "pure" and that it "liveth" (inspiration). Then we also have it being "preserved from this generation forever" and that it "abideth" (preservation). The inspired originals got preserved....therefore, if we have a preservation of the Bible we also have an inspired Bible. If that is not the case than we have a corpse of dead words.

 

Look at what Paul told Timothy...."And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works." All scripture is said to be "given by inspiration of God" and Timothy is said to have in his hand the "holy scriptures" (though Timothy did not have the originals). This is the doctrine of "inspiration and preservation" in action.

What "insertions" are there in the KJB? Unless you have the originals than you really wouldn't know. Could you list the "insertions" and tell how you know that they are "insertions" ? 

Meanwhile I am afraid that I don't know what a "graphe" is. --bro. Hoss

 

CRITIC: 2. Preservation is found in the original "graphe." If the "graphe" had not been preserved we would have no Bible today. Warning: Don't make the 1611 KJV take over and become superior to the "graphe" which was ONCE delivered to the saints (Jude 1:3.) KJV translators attempted to "correct" the "graphe."

HOSS: Speak English please! What is a "graphe" ? What is "THE graphe" ? How did the KJV translators try and correct it? How do you know? --bro. Hoss

 

CRITIC: 3. What in the world "bound" in this context has to do with your argument? More bias alert.

HOSS: 

 

2 Timothy 2:

[8] Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:
[9] Wherein I suffer trouble, as an evil doer, even unto bonds; but the word of God is not bound. 

Paul is clearly referring to his gospel (found in the scriptures Rom. 1:1-4, 1 Cor. 15:1-4, Rom. 16:25-26) and he says that "the word of God is not bound". I take that to mean that the word of God is not bound--under any circumstance. Look at Isaiah 55....

Isaiah 55:
[8] For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, saith the LORD.
[9] For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.
[10] For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater:
[11] So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it.

 

The word of God is said to water the EARTH (not just Israel and Greece). The word of God is said to not return VOID (but the dead Hebrew and Koine Greek languages are not prospering at all...hardly any of God's people know anything about those languages...they return VOID). Which is why I say the word of God is not bound. 

 

During the Acts period (God's last dealings with Israel before He completely set them aside until the fulness of the Gentiles is come in--Romans 11) the gift of tongues was God's method of getting the word of God to other nations and languages. That gift of tongues was said to be "in part" and the complete written scriptures were said to be "that which is perfect".....God did away with the miraculous gift of tongues for the complete revelation--the written Bible. The new plan for getting the word of God to all nations (Rom. 10:17, 16:25-26, 1 Cor. 15:1-4) is by the complete, written word of God. 

 

Blah, blah, blah, is that really the "Holyghost"  
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/07/blah-blah-blah-is-that-really-holyghost.html
 

CRITIC: 4. The translations here are for the specific purpose of inscripturation of God's special

revelation under the direct supervision of the Holy Spirit (not of a group of 16th century translators) as the

remainder of the "graphe" which was completed with the last word in the book of Revelation.

HOSS: And you don't think the KJB translation is "for the specific purpose of inscripturation of God's special revelation under the direct supervision of the Holy Spirit" for the English language?

 

WARNING: Here is where the Bible correctors lose their heads!

 

The word of God is closely related to the Holy Spirit, it is even called "the sword of the Spirit" (Eph. 6:17). 

 

Ephesians 6:17 And take the helmet of salvation, and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God:

 

Hebrew 4:

[12] For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.
[13] Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: but all things are naked and opened unto the eyes of him with whom we have to do.

 

1 Peter 1:

[23] Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
[24] For all flesh is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away:
[25] But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.

 

Romans 9:17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth.

 

Galatians 3:8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

 

Galatians 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

 

As you can see, the word of God is alive, quick, powerful, dividing asunder of soul and spirit, a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.......the word of God is called "he" and is said to have "sight" and "eyes"......

 

Here's the scary part...."For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth." (Rom. 9:17)....."I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name." (Psa. 138:2) Paul replaced "God" with "scripture" and the Psalmist said that God magnified His word above His name.

 

Galatians 3:8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

Not only that, the scripture can foresee what God will do ("Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: but all things are naked and opened unto the eyes of him")....the scripture is given God-like attributes. I reckon that's why it is called "the sword of the Spirit". 

Here's the last one....

 

Romans 11:32 For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.

 

Galatians 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

 

I do not "worship the Bible" and I do not think the Bible is a member of the Godhead, but the word of God is certainly holy, infallible, and made alive by God. 

 

The Holy Spirit does not merely oversee the word of God's transmission, it is as if the Holy Spirit were in the word of God itself--the sword of the Spirit. It "liveth".