Friday, August 1, 2014

28 Problems with Acts 28 Dispensationalism

28 points against the Acts 28 dispensationalists.

1.) Paul said he was preaching Jesus Christ according to the revelation of the mystery which was KEPT SECRET SINCE THE WORLD BEGAN according to Romans 16:25-26. The only way around this is to say that this is not really a mystery and it is certainly not the mystery of Ephesians. However, I am a Bible believing Christian that takes the Bible to "say what it means and means what it says". 

2.) Paul said that when he got saved (Acts 9) he became the pattern for those who would believe after him in regards to grace and longsuffering (1 Tim. 1:14-16), not Acts 28. 

3.) The dispensation of grace was PRE-ACTS 28 (Rom. 6:14, 1 Cor. 3:10, 1 Tim. 1:14-16).

4.) The only connection Paul makes between his Acts converts and Abraham's promise is in regards to JUSTIFICATION and RECEIVING THE SPIRIT (Rom. 4, Gal. 3). Show me the verse where Paul says that the Acts converts would spend eternity in the New Jerusalem! And please, don't embarrass yourself by quoting the allegory in Galatians 4...That's the oldest trick in the book. 

5.) The body of Christ existed BEFORE ACTS 28. The Acts converts of Paul were "members of Christ" that were "joined unto the Lord" and were "one spirit" with Christ and the relationship between the believer and Christ was a HEAD-BODY / HUSBAND-WIFE  relationship just like in Ephesians (1 Cor. 6:15-17, 11:3, compared with Eph. 5:22-32). 

6.) The Acts converts were "one body" by partaking of Christ's sacrificial death whereby they were reconciled into one body and no longer Jew or Gentile but just THE CHURCH OF GOD. Just like in Ephesians (see 1 Cor. 10:16-20, 32, compared with Eph. 2:13-16). 

7.) The Holy Spirit baptized the Acts converts of Paul into Christ and were no longer Jew or Gentile, but one body. (Rom. 12:5, 1 Cor. 12:12-27)

8.) Yes the believers during Acts were referred to as eyes, ears, head, etc. in the body of 1 Corinthians 12, but Paul is simply likening the body of Christ to the functionality of the human body. Do you really think that the Acts believers were ACTUALLY SPIRITUAL noses, feet, armpits, etc. ??? Get real! 

9.) Wasn't the rapture of the Acts converts a "mystery" given "by the word of the Lord" ? (1 Cor. 15:51, 1 Thes. 4:15) Does Paul quoting an OT "saying" about victory over death nullify the fact that it was a MYSTERY BY THE WORD OF THE LORD??? 

10.) How come y'all Acts 28ers love to quote half of a sentence as your proof text? Acts 26:22, "Having therefore obtained help of God, I continue unto this day, witnessing both to small and great, saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come:" Y'all love to quote that and stamp it all over your dispensational charts but y'all very rarely even finish the sentence (v.23 "That Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.")

11.) Why do y'all believe that Paul's converts (who were neither Jew nor Gentile, the body of Christ and church of God) that were not appointed unto wrath, under grace, and in the day of salvation, (1 Thes. 1:10, 5:9, Rom. 5:9, 6:14, 2 Cor. 6:2)  were going to be going through the time of JACOB'S TROUBLE, (Zeph. 1:14-15, Jer. 30:7, Rev. 6:12-17, Matt. 3:7, Luke 21:23, ) a time of  WRATH ??? How could Paul's converts in Acts go through that if they were under grace, not appointed unto wrath, and in the day of salvation?

12.) How could Paul write in Acts that nothing could separate them from the love of God (Rom. 8:35-39) IF they were to be going through the tribulation as you say? IF they were going through the tribulation than they could very easily "drink of the wine of the wrath of God" (Rev. 14:9-10) ???

13.) How could Paul write to churches that were going through the tribulation? Churches in the tribulation can be SPUED OUT OF THE MOUTH OF GOD (Rev. 3:16) while Paul wrote that they COULD NOT be separated from the love of God (Rom. 8:35-39).

14.) Tribulation/kingdom believers had to endure to the end proving THEIR OWN faith by their works and THEN after the tribulation they would get their sins blotted out and receive the salvation of their souls (Jer. 31:34, 1 Pet. 1:7-11, James 2:17-26, 1 John 5:1-4, Acts 3:19-20, Matt. 24:13, Heb. 10:38-39). But Paul taught that we are justified by Christ's faith (Rom. 3:22, Gal. 2:16-20, Philippians 2:8, 3:9, 1 Thes. 5:24, 2 Thes. 3:30 which is defined in Philippians 2:8 and especially 2 Timothy 2:13 "If we believe not, yet he abideth faithful: he cannot deny himself". Paul taught salvation by BELIEVING ALONE and FAITH ALONE (Rom. 3-5, Gal. 2:16-3:29). Paul taught that his converts had "now received the atonement" (Rom. 5:8) and had already been "justified from all things" (Acts 13:38-39). In fact, Paul CONTRASTED himself from the JEWS, who got their atonement at the 2nd coming...."For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.  And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins. " (Rom. 11:25-27)

15.) The kingdom program believers had to get water baptized as the symbolic washing away of sins and the answer of a good conscience, an outward show of their faith (1 Pet. 3:20-21, Mark 16:15-16, Matt. 28:19, Acts 2:38, 10:47-48, 22:16, Heb 10:22). It was connected with them being a nation of priests in the kingdom ( 1 Pet. 2:5-9, Rev. 1:6, 5:10, Num. 8:6-7, John 3:25-26, Heb. 6:2, 10:22). Ministers of the kingdom program were SENT TO baptize and nobody could forbid it (Matt. 28:19, John 1:33, Mark 16:15-16, Acts 2:38, 1 Pet. 3:20-21, Acts 10:47-48). However, the only time Paul baptized as on his 2nd missionary trip with Silas and after he did it he stated "I thank God I baptized none of you" and "Christ sent me NOT TO baptize" (1 Cor. 1:14-17). Paul's ministry was completely different.

16.) In God's great ANGER, WRATH, and FURY He scatters His people during the tribulation (Jer. 32:37), but Paul's converts were NOT appointed unto wrath and were under GRACE (Rom. 5:9, 6:14, 1 Thes. 1:10, 5:9).

17.) Paul's Acts ministry was a "MYSTERY" (Rom. 11:25), where do you find Gentiles getting blessed through Israel's FALL in the OT ???

18.) The salvation of the kingdom believers is "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord; And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you: Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began. For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you. And it shall come to pass, that every soul, which will not hear that prophet, shall be destroyed from among the people. Yea, and all the prophets from Samuel and those that follow after, as many as have spoken, have likewise foretold of these days." (Acts 3:19-24) and "That the trial of your faith, being much more precious than of gold that perisheth, though it be tried with fire, might be found unto praise and honour and glory at the appearing of Jesus Christ: Whom having not seen, ye love; in whom, though now ye see him not, yet believing, ye rejoice with joy unspeakable and full of glory: Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls. Of which salvation the prophets have inquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you:" (1 Peter 1:7-11).     

But Paul said that what he preached was a mystery...."For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.....Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, " (Rom. 11:25, 16:25) and also 1 Cor. 4:1 "Let a man so account of us, as of the ministers of Christ, and stewards of the mysteries of God."

19.) Paul said that the sign gifts would cease with the completion of scripture.
The signs and spiritual gifts did NOT cease at Acts 28:28 because Timothy was still NOT TO NEGLECT his gift (seemingly the gift of teaching). See 1 Timothy 1:18, 4:14, 2 Timothy 1:6. Of course healing quit early on as it seems, but Timothy had the teaching gift even in 1 and 2 Timothy. (teaching gift is supernatural ability to teach, similar to Acts 4:8-31) 

20.) Peter was sent to preach his gospel, that had been spoken by the prophets since the world began, to every creature and all nations (Mark 16:15-16, Matt. 28:19, Acts 3:19-26). Paul was sent to the Jew and Gentile and all "all nations" to preach his gospel according to the revelation of the mystery which had been kept secret since the world began (Rom. 1:14, 16:25, Acts 26:17, 2 Cor. 5:14-21). HOWEVER, Paul said that Peter was committed the "gospel of the circumcision" and that Paul had the "gospel of the uncircumcision" (Gal. 2:7). Since they were sent to the same group of people, Paul is clearly referring to DIFFERENT gospels pertaining to DIFFERENT programs. People were trying to put Paul's converts back under the law and so Paul said that if anyone preached any other gospel UNTO HIS CONVERTS than "let them be accursed". Peter and the apostles recognized Paul's ministry and message and agreed not put his converts under bondage. (See Galatians 1-2, Acts 15) 

21.) Y'all talk about the four things that James asked Paul and his converts to follow (Acts 15) as if it means that the mystery had not been revealed. But all it means is that James thought that Paul and his converts would "do well" in not being an offense to the Jews. There was an elect remnant of Jews in the blinded nation (Rom. 11) that God wanted saved out of the cast off nation. Because of that Paul was not to offend them if possible so that it would be easier to reach them, but that went for the Gentiles too (1 Cor. 9:16-27). Fornication is something that is ALWAYS a sin in any dispensation, but as for the other three things (taken from the law) it was okay for Paul and his converts to do them as long as it wouldn't hinder the gospel. The SIN is hindering the gospel, NOT disobeying the law. Paul and his converts had LIBERTY IN CHRIST and were UNDER GRACE (Rom. 6:14, 1 Cor. 8:1-13, Gal. 2:4). See my post on this issue  

22.) Galatians 4:26.
As for Galatians 4, In this ALLEGORY (unwise to try and establish a doctrine based on a figurative passage):

Hagar = the old covenant, the earthly Jerusalem in bondage
Ishmael = those born after the flesh
Sarah = the new covenant, the heavenly Jerusalem which is free
Isaac = those born after the Spirit
“mount Sinai, which gendereth to bondage, WHICH IS AGAR”
“But Jerusalem, which is above is free, WHICH IS THE MOTHER OF US ALL” (i.e. Sarah)

Paul is not saying that the heavenly Jerusalem is our mother. He is saying that Sarah, who represents the Jerusalem which is above, is our mother. Abraham is “the father of us all” (Rom. 4:16). Abraham is said to be our father in the spiritual sense that we receive righteousness from God by faith as he did. Sarah, Abraham’s wife, is our mother in the spiritual sense that her son, Isaac, represents those that are born after the Spirit. We are not under the new covenant but we are born after the Spirit like those who will be brought under the new covenant. 

23.) Galatians 3 and Abraham
Every time in Paul's epistles when he associates us with Abraham or "the promise", it is always the promise of the Spirit and imputed righteousness by faith. It is never in any other context. To say that Paul taught the land promise given to Abraham was for his converts it to twist scripture and take it out of context. Can you show me the verses that say Paul's converts inherited the land given to Abraham? 

24.) 2 Corinthians 11:2 and the "chaste virgin"
Again, the context shows that Paul is not teaching that his converts were the bride of Christ anymore than he is in Ephesians 5:22-32. Paul plainly states that his converts were the BODY OF CHRIST, not the bride of Christ (1 Cor. 6:15-17, 10:16-17, 12:12-27, Rom. 12:5). "For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ. But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ. For if he that cometh preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive another spirit, which ye have not received, or another gospel, which ye have not accepted, ye might well bear with him. " Paul likens the relationship of his converts to Christ just as he does in Ephesians 5:23-33. Paul had espoused them to one husband (Christ) and so they should not depart from Him, His gospel, or anything else (moving away from Christ = adultery ).

Paul does the same thing in Ephesians 5...."For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body. Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing. Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;] That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word, That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish." (Eph. 5:23-33) 

Paul did this in 1 Corinthians 6:15-17 as well..."Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid. What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh. But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit."

25.) "Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come." (1 Cor. 10:11)

Acts 28ers take that to mean that Paul was expecting the tribulation period, but that is just private interpretation. Paul was expecting the rapture at any moment and the tribulation being just around the corner.

Even in 2 Timothy Paul talks about the "last days". 

26.) Romans 11 and the grafting in
The context is talking to Jews (nationally) and Gentiles (nationally) and the subject is "riches" and blessings/fatness from God.

[12] Now if the fall of them be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness?

[17] And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, wert graffed in among them, and with them partakest of the root and fatness of the olive tree;

Those who are broken off from God's goodness and blessing was due to unbelief (rejected God) which was Israel and so now His goodness has gone to the Gentile nations because they are standing by faith (received God).

[20] Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith. Be not highminded, but fear:
[21] For if God spared not the natural branches (for unbelief), take heed lest he also spare not thee (for unbelief).
[22] Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity
(because of unbelief); but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness (keep receiving God and standing in faith): otherwise thou also shalt be cut off (for unbelief).

That is the only thing the passage could be saying, for the saved Gentiles standing by faith do not have to work for salvation (Romans 3-5) and they have eternal security (Romans 8:31-39). How could it be saying anything else?

And history has proven the passage to be true. The Gentile nations that received God and as a whole served God got blessed by God and took part in blessings (God gave us a perfect Bible in the universal language of Gentiles) and those who did not accept God have not been as blessed (look at Africa and Asia). But now, for example, America has gotten high minded and has not continued in the goodness of God and the "rapture" (for lack of a better word) is clearly going to be soon. See 2 Timothy 3.

Especially considering, "Thou wilt say then, The branches were broken off, that I might be graffed in" is prominent today. People are claiming to have replaced Israel, they have claimed themselves as the bride of the Lamb, spiritual Israel, etc.

How could it be saying anything else knowing that the saved people in Acts were in one body where there was neither Jew nor Gentile, saved by grace through the faith of Christ and sealed by the Spirit with eternal security according to 1 Corinthians 12:12-13, Galatians 3:26-28, Romans 3-5, Galatians 2:16,20, Romans 8:31-39 and 2 Corinthians 1:22?
27.) "Feasts in the Acts epistles"
There are no Jewish feasts in Paul's epistles. You will find the word "feast" very little in Paul's epistles. Here's an excerpt from a separate Acts 28 refute. 
"Here's Kelson's "feast of unleavend bread" in 1 Corinthians 5. 

[6] Your glorying is not good. Know ye not that a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump?
[7] Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:
[8] Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.

Hmm, and that is Paul teaching them to observe Jewish feasts? I don't think so buddy.

The only other time "feast" is used in 1 Corinthians is in 10:27, "If any of them that believe not bid you to a feast, and ye be disposed to go; whatsoever is set before you, eat, asking no question for conscience sake." But that reference is irrelevant to the issue obviously. 
There is no Passover feast in 1 Corinthians either. There is the communion (The Lord's Supper) but that is a memorial for the church, the body of Christ. See 10:17, " For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread." That is a memorial of how they became one body, by partaking of Christ (via Spirit baptism of Romans 6, 1 Corinthians 12, and Galatians 3)

There is also no "feast of trumpets" in 1 Corinthians. You could't find it with a laser beam and spot light. Paul taught in Acts that his converts were UNDER GRACE and not UNDER THE LAW in Romans 6. How could he teach Jewish feasts if they were not under the law?
Some say that because spiritual gifts existed in 1 Corinthians that it is the Jewish feast of Pentacost...quite a stretch. What does that even mean? Did every time someone exercise a spiritual gift it was a Jewish feast taking place? If so that was happening after Acts 28 with Timothy as already shown.
Also, some say that because the word "trumpet" is used in 1 Corinthians 15 than this is the Jewish feast of trumpets. How anyone could hold to that belief I do not know. It needs no refute.
28.) 2 Corinthians 3:6, "new testament".
In 2 Corinthians 3:6 Paul says "Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life." The Acts 28ers say that Paul is teaching the New Covenant of Israel. 

First of all, I have already demonstrated that Paul COULD NOT have taught the "new covenant" of Israel EXACTLY. Nobody is EXACTLY under the New Covenant until the 2nd coming. That is when Christ comes and takes away the sins of the kingdom gospel believers and CAUSES them to walk in His statues by putting His Spirit in them and a new heart. Read it Jeremiah 31 and 32, Ezekiel 36, Joel 2, and Rom. 11:26-27. NOBODY is under that EXACTLY. However, since Acts 2, believers have had a foretaste of the new covenant in that we receive the Holy Spirit and receive redemption through Christ's sacrificial death. In that sense we are minsters of the New Testament and there is not a problem with that (dispensationally). 
My question to the Acts 28ers, HAD YOU RATHER BE UNDER THE OLD TESTAMENT?
The way the Old Testament was set up, the Jews in Israel were the only one who could serve God through the Law and the Temple. Salvation was of the Jews and Gentiles had to come to Israel if they wanted in God's program.
The church, Christ's body, was made possible by the shedding of the blood of the New Testament. 
"Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby: And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh." (Eph. 2:11-17)
1 Corinthians 10:
[16] The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?
[17] For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread.
[18] Behold Israel after the flesh: are not they which eat of the sacrifices partakers of the alter?
[19] What say I then? that the idol is any thing, or that which is offered in sacrifice to idols is any thing?
[20] But I say, that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to devils, and not to God: and I would not that ye should have fellowship with devils.
[21] Ye cannot drink the cup of the Lord, and the cup of devils: ye cannot be partakers of the Lord's table, and of the table of devils

1 Corinthians 11:
[23] For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, That the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread:
[24] And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.
[25] After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.
[26] For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come

The only problem with 2 Corinthians 3:6 is one that the Acts 28ers created themselves. 

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