HOSS: "church", "temple, what is the difference? I have been to a CHURCH that was named "The Baptist TABERNACLE" and I have seen churches called "The Baptist TEMPLE". In Ephesians 2:21 the CHURCH which is Christ's body (as part of the "household of God) is said to "groweth unto an holy TEMPLE in the Lord". By the way, "church" and "congregation" are synonyms, the Bible uses them interchangeably quoting OT to NT (Heb. 2:12 with Ps. 22:22-28). To say that "church" and "temple" cannot be synonymous is ridiculous. And who cares what "every known Greek manuscript" says? When the modern versions depart from "every known Hebrew/Greek manuscript" Mr. Nobible says nothing about it--double standard.
Mr. Nobible: "Lucifer" Is 14:12 : "O Day Star" (Lucifer is a human origin nickname for the Devil in the 1600's refers not to the devil but the king of Babylon)
HOSS: Proof? Problem? Yea hath God said? The passage is CLEARLY a reference to Satan and the king of Babylon. When was the king of Babylon ever "fallen from heaven" (Isa. 14:12) ??? Guess who is king of "Babylon" in the tribulation period? Revelation 14, 16, 17, 18.....take a guess buddy!
Mr. Nobible: "Easter" Acts 12:4 : "Passover"(Easter very poor choice as it confuses the pagan origin Roman Catholic "Easter" holy day with what the TR clearly says is the Jewish Passover!)
HOSS: Come back when you graduate from kindergarten! There is no Greek word for "Easter", they use "PASCHA" (even today that is still what they use). Greeks used "pascha" for "easter". It can be translated either way. And given that the days of unleavened bread were already OVER (19:1-3) Herod was clearly talking about killing Peter after EASTER which would have only been a few days off. It is utterly impossible to defend "Passover" in Acts 12:4 (ESV, NIV, GB, NASV, etc.). That would create a contradiction in the Bible. It is clear from verse 3 "then were the days of unleavened bread" that Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread which occur Abib 15-21 (Lev. 23:4-5) which is AFTER the Passover on Abib 14, the only possibility left is Easter. Note: Tyndale, Great Bible, Bishop's Bible, etc. used "Easter" and "Passover" interchangeably in their Bibles even when referring to the Jewish Passover--not just the pagan "Easter". Luther even went as far as to say "Christ our Easter Lamb" (in German).
KJB: 1 Corinthians 5:7 Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:
Luther Bible: 1 Corinthians 5:7 Darum feget den alten Sauerteig aus, auf daß ihr ein neuer Teig seid, gleichwie ihr ungesäuert seid. Denn wir haben auch ein Osterlamm, das ist Christus, für uns geopfert.
"Osterlamm" = "Easter Lamb"
Mr. Nobible: "Baptism" (entire New Testament) Acts 2:38; 22:16 : immersion, because sprinkling was the mode of baptism in 1611AD, they jelly-fished out and transliterated the Greek "baptizo" but refused to translate it.
HOSS: How foolish. "Baptism" doesn't mean "immerse" in the English NOR the Greek.
Baptism by Christ with the Holy Ghost into a person is a "falling", "pouring", etc. but NEVER an immersion in ANY Greek text!!! (Joel 2, Ezek. 36, Jer. 31-32, Acts 1-2, 10-11)
Baptism unto Moses (1 Cor. 10:1-2) NONE of the Jews got "immersed"--baptism unto Moses was an IDENTIFICATION--that's in ANY Greek text, not just the English.
The flood baptism (1 Peter 3:20-21) was a POURING of rain. God did not "immerse" anything.
 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.