Wednesday, August 13, 2014

Hoss vs Mr. Nobible, are there errors in the King James Bible?

Mr. Nobible: "robbers of churches." Acts 19:37 : Every known Greek manuscript has HIEROSULOUS, "robbers of temples" 

HOSS: "church", "temple, what is the difference? I have been to a CHURCH that was named "The Baptist TABERNACLE" and I have seen churches called "The Baptist TEMPLE". In Ephesians 2:21 the CHURCH which is Christ's body (as part of the "household of God) is said to "groweth unto an holy TEMPLE in the Lord". By the way, "church" and "congregation" are synonyms, the Bible uses them interchangeably quoting OT to NT (Heb. 2:12 with Ps. 22:22-28). To say that "church" and "temple" cannot be synonymous is ridiculous. And who cares what "every known Greek manuscript" says? When the modern versions depart from "every known Hebrew/Greek manuscript" Mr. Nobible says nothing about it--double standard.

Mr. Nobible: "Lucifer" Is 14:12 : "O Day Star" (Lucifer is a human origin nickname for the Devil in the 1600's refers not to the devil but the king of Babylon) 

HOSS: Proof? Problem? Yea hath God said? The passage is CLEARLY a reference to Satan and the king of Babylon. When was the king of Babylon ever "fallen from heaven" (Isa. 14:12) ??? Guess who is king of "Babylon" in the tribulation period? Revelation 14, 16, 17, 18.....take a guess buddy! 

Mr. Nobible: "Easter" Acts 12:4 : "Passover"(Easter very poor choice as it confuses the pagan origin Roman Catholic "Easter" holy day with what the TR clearly says is the Jewish Passover!) 

HOSS: Come back when you graduate from kindergarten! There is no Greek word for "Easter", they use "PASCHA" (even today that is still what they use). Greeks used "pascha" for "easter". It can be translated either way. And given that the days of unleavened bread were already OVER (19:1-3) Herod was clearly talking about killing Peter after EASTER which would have only been a few days off. It is utterly impossible to defend "Passover" in Acts 12:4 (ESV, NIV, GB, NASV, etc.). That would create a contradiction in the Bible. It is clear from verse 3 "then were the days of unleavened bread" that Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread which occur Abib 15-21 (Lev. 23:4-5) which is AFTER the Passover on Abib 14, the only possibility left is Easter. Note: Tyndale, Great Bible, Bishop's Bible, etc. used "Easter" and "Passover" interchangeably in their Bibles even when referring to the Jewish Passover--not just the pagan "Easter". Luther even went as far as to say "Christ our Easter Lamb" (in German). 

KJB: 1 Corinthians 5:7  Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:

Luther Bible: 1 Corinthians 5:7 Darum feget den alten Sauerteig aus, auf daß ihr ein neuer Teig seid, gleichwie ihr ungesäuert seid. Denn wir haben auch ein Osterlamm, das ist Christus, für uns geopfert.
"Osterlamm" = "Easter Lamb"

Mr. Nobible: "Baptism" (entire New Testament) Acts 2:38; 22:16 : immersion, because sprinkling was the mode of baptism in 1611AD, they jelly-fished out and transliterated the Greek "baptizo" but refused to translate it.

HOSS: How foolish. "Baptism" doesn't mean "immerse" in the English NOR the Greek. 

Baptism by Christ with the Holy Ghost into a person is a "falling", "pouring", etc. but NEVER an immersion in ANY Greek text!!! (Joel 2, Ezek. 36, Jer. 31-32, Acts 1-2, 10-11)

Baptism unto Moses (1 Cor. 10:1-2) NONE of the Jews got "immersed"--baptism unto Moses was an IDENTIFICATION--that's in ANY Greek text, not just the English. 

The flood baptism (1 Peter 3:20-21) was a POURING of rain. God did not "immerse" anything. 



Can you prove that water baptism was done by immersion?

Mr. Nobible: "Tithes of all I possess" Lk 18:12 : "all I acquire" (Not only variant with the TR, but quite wrong. Tithes were never paid on capital, only increase) 
HOSS: Mr. Nobible says "posses" should be "get". What he does not tell you is that at the time of 1611 it was not a passive verb. Not to mention the definition of "posses" includes "the getting". I do not see how this is an error, again I do not know anyone that has ever felt lost or confused because of that reading. I imagine Mr. Nobible is the only one who could get thrown off by that reading.   
Mr. Nobible: "Schoolmaster" Gal 3:24 : "attendant" (the law was the one who brought us to Christ, not taught us about Christ) 
Romans 3:
[19] Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
[20] Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin
The law shows us that we are sinners and therefore we need Christ.....The Law and Prophets did talk about Christ (Deut. 18, Isa. 53, Ps. 22, etc.)
Mr. Nobible: "God save the King": 1Sam 10:24, 2Sam 16:16, 1Kings 1:25 : "May the king live" ("God" not in TR, but reflects the British culture of the 1600's. Proof that the translators used dynamic equivalents.)
HOSS: Who gives a rip? The KJB uses LESS "dynamic equivalents" than any other translation out there. Dynamic equivalents are used all in the modern come the KJB can't do it but the NIV, NASB, ESV, Amplified, etc. can? How is this even an error?
Mr. Nobible: "God Forbid." Ro. 3:4,6,31; 6:2,15; 7:7,13; 9:14; 11:1,11; 1 Co. 6:15; Ga. 2:17; 3:21; 6:14  : "may it not be" or "let it not be." (KJV adds the word God where it is absent in the TR because it was a common expression in 1600's. Proof that the translators used dynamic equivalents.)  
HOSS: See answer to previous objection.
Mr. Nobible: "sweet savour" Lev 6:21; 8:28; 17:6; 23:18  : "soothing aroma" (KJV appeals to wrong senses- taste instead of smell in the TR)    
HOSS: The only thing that smells around here is you. Where's the error? Why should I care what the TR says? 
Mr. Nobible: "ashes upon his face" 1 Kings 20:38 : "bandage over his eyes" (KJV varies from TR by using ashes) 
HOSS: Somebody is pulling the fluff over your eyes. You have yet to show me an ERROR and I do not care what the TR says. 
Mr. Nobible: "flagon" 2 Sam 6:19; 1 Chron 16:3; SoS 2:5; Hosea 3:1 : These verses contain the word "flagon" which is a fluted cup from which liquid is drunk. However, the Hebrew word is "ashishah" which has always meant raisins or raisin cakes. This is especially true in Hos 3:1 because raisin cakes were often offered to idols. This is an obvious error in translation. 
2 Samuel 6:19 And he dealt among all the people, even among the whole multitude of Israel, as well to the women as men, to every one a cake of bread, and a good piece of flesh, and a flagon of wine. So all the people departed every one to his house.
So should it actually say "to every one a cake of bread, and a good piece of flesh, and a raisan cake of wine"???? You're a joke buddy.
--Eli "Hoss" Caldwell

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