Wednesday, August 6, 2014

Hoss vs Brian Kelson: Is the Lord's supper the Passover?

Hoss vs Brian Kelson: Is the Lord's supper the Passover?

Brian R. Kelson (Chuck Belch parrot) of Acts 28.net (Bullingerism) has told me that the Lord's supper of 1 Corinthians 10 and 11 is actually the Passover meal.....funny, the word "Passover" isn't even found in 1 Corinthians 10-11. 

Here are the differences in the Passover and the Lord's supper.

THE PASSOVER WAS REQUIRED: (Numbers 9:1-4, Exodus 12:47)

THE PASSOVER WAS FOR CIRCUMCISED JEWS ONLY: (Exodus 12:43-48)

THE PASSOVER WAS A MEMORIAL OF THE DELIVERANCE FROM EGYPT: (Exodus 12:26-27)

THE PASSOVER WAS DONE AT A CERTAIN TIME (ABIB 14th): (Exodus 12:6)

Contrast that with.....

THE LORD'S SUPPER WAS NOT REQUIRED: Some call the Lord's supper an
ordinance. But an ordinance is something God ordained to be kept, much like a commandment.
The Lord's supper was never commanded by our spokesman (Paul, Rom. 13:13), therefore it is not an ordinance for the grace dispensation. The Acts converts were not under the law but under grace (Rom. 6:14). It did not matter what they ate as long as it wasn't an offense to anyone (Rom. 14, 1 Cor. 8-9)

THE LORD'S SUPPER WAS FOR JEW OR GENTILE: No circumcision required, it was for Jews and Gentiles alike in the "one body" or "church of God"  (1 Cor. 10:16-32). Paul taught that circumcision was of no value (Gal. 5:6, 6:15).

THE LORD'S SUPPER WAS A MEMORIAL OF CHRIST'S DEATH WHICH ENABLED THE "ONE BODY":  1 Corinthians 10:16-17 "The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ? For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread." See Ephesians 2, the death of Christ is what was able to reconcile Jew and Gentile into one body. 

THE LORD'S SUPPER WAS NOT AT ANY CERTAIN TIME: 1 Corinthians 11:26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.

Also note that Paul "received of the Lord" the Lord's supper (1 Cor. 11:23), but the Passover was a well known part of the Law that Paul would have obviously known about and observed since he was a "Hebrew of the Hebrews" (Philippians 3:5). The Lord's supper was a special revelation to Paul and it was about the Jew and Gentile being in one body, "COMMUNION", see 1 Corinthians 10-11. 

Acts 28 dispensationalism loses again. --Eli "Hoss" Caldwell


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