Blah, blah, blah, is that really the "Holyghost"

1 Corinthians 13, the 2nd coming of Christ or the completion of the NT scripture? Refuting the charismatic confusion and blaspheming of the Holy Ghost that occurs often today.

The charismatics use this passage to say that the signs don't cease until the 2nd coming of Christ. Believers that do not believe that say that the signs ceased at the completion of the NT scriptures. Let's examine the passage with an open mind and see for ourselves.

1 Corinthians 13:
[1] Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal.
[2] And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing.
[3] And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, and have not charity, it profiteth me nothing.
[4] Charity suffereth long, and is kind; charity envieth not; charity vaunteth not itself, is not puffed up,
[5] Doth not behave itself unseemly, seeketh not her own, is not easily provoked, thinketh no evil;
[6] Rejoiceth not in iniquity, but rejoiceth in the truth;
[7] Beareth all things, believeth all things, hopeth all things, endureth all things.

That was self explanatory, now here's the good part......

[8] Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.



There it is! Ah, but when does this occur? When does the supernatural giving of prophecies, tongues (foreign languages), and knowledge vanish away?

[9] For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.
[10] But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.

When ever the gifts mentioned above cease, we know that those are part of a partial knowledge/revelation. And it is said that something PERFECT is going to come and then the partial stuff will be done away with. Does a "perfect" in this passage mean holy or complete? Obviously the word can mean either and so the charismatics say that in this case (v.10) it means something holy, righteous, etc. But the non-charismatics say that in this case it means "complete". Saying as the context is contrasting from something PARTIAL than the meaning of "perfect" in verse 10 is referring to something that is COMPLETE.

1 Corinthians was written in 58 A.D., was the New Testament scripture in PART and still needed to be made complete? YES!!!! Was the 2nd coming of Christ partially there and needed to be complete? NO!!!! And the passage also didn't say "he who is perfect" it said "that which is perfect", the wording itself doesn't even sound like it is referring to anybody coming but rather a perfect and sound knowledge--nothing partial.

[11] When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things.



Now what is associated with being a child in understanding? Is the 2nd coming of Christ not yet have happened ever made anybody a "child in understanding"? No. Has the 2nd coming of Christ been prophesied to make people a man that has put away childish things? Not really.

BUT knowing scripture is HEAVILY associated with being a man and not a child. Look in the very next chapter, 14. "Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men. In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord." (1 Corinthians 14:20-21) In the very next chapter Paul tells us what he means in 1 Corinthians 13:11. Being a man in understanding is by knowing written scripture!

Now look back in 1 Corinthians chapter 3:1-3. "And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal, even as unto babes in Christ. I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear it, neither yet now are ye able. For ye are yet carnal: for whereas there is among you envying, and strife, and divisions, are ye not carnal, and walk as men?" You have the Corinthians walking "as men" but they are actually "babes in Christ". What is this "milk" and "meat" that Paul is talking about?

Hebrews 5:
[11] Of whom we have many things to say, and hard to be uttered, seeing ye are dull of hearing.
[12] For when for the time ye ought to be teachers, ye have need that one teach you again which be the first principles of the oracles of God; and are become such as have need of milk, and not of strong meat.
[13] For every one that useth milk is unskilful in the word of righteousness: for he is a babe.
[14] But strong meat belongeth to them that are of full age, even those who by reason of use have their senses exercised to discern both good and evil.

1 Peter 2:2 As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby:

There again we have another reference to knowing the scriptures is for them that "are of full age" and those who don't know the scriptures are a "babe". Also, wasn't it when Jesus was a 12 year old that the Pharisees were amazed at His knowledge of scriptures because he was just a child? (Luke 2:42-47)

Clearly 1 Corinthians 13:11 is talking about the scriptures and not the 2nd coming of Christ.

[12] For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.
[13] And now abideth faith, hope, charity, these three; but the greatest of these is charity.

Here is the part where the charismatics ignore everything in the context of the chapter and say "Ooooh, LOOK! LOOK! It says "face to face" and things that are face to face are not written!!!" and then they quote 2 John 1:12 "Having many things to write unto you, I would not write with paper and ink: but I trust to come unto you, and speak face to face, that our joy may be full."

To which I say, "CONTEXT". Obviously verse 12 is figurative, unless you believe that Paul was literally looking into a foggy mirror.

"For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known."

Paul is likening the situation to looking into a mirror that is dark. He is presently seeing "through a glass darkly" but when that which is perfect is come he will be seeing "face to face" and seeing his reflection perfectly "then shall I know even as also I am known". If you don't believe me than maybe you will believe the apostle James writing by inspiration of God......

James 1:
[21] Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls.
[22] But be ye doers of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving your own selves.
[23] For if any be a hearer of the word, and not a doer, he is like unto a man beholding his natural face in a glass:
[24] For he beholdeth himself, and goeth his way, and straightway forgetteth what manner of man he was.
[25] But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed.

(also see Proverbs 27:19, "As in water face answereth to face, so the heart of man to man." The reflection is said to be face to face. )

So much for the tongue talking! Meanwhile it is blasphemy to run around shouting and barking like a dog and then saying "it was the power of the Holy Ghost".