This morning I got a message from Rick Norris (not Chuck) about Acts 12:4. In this post I will refute his message, but first let me establish what I believe about Acts 12:4.
Acts 12:
[1] Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
[2] And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
[3] And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
[4] And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
[5] Peter therefore was kept in prison: but prayer was made without ceasing of the church unto God for him.
Most "bibles" consider this rendering of the Greek word 'pascha' as 'Easter' an error. Their claim is that pascha can only be translated as the Jewish "Passover". First of all, the Bible correctors will have a hard time proving that pascha can not be translated Easter....saying as "pascha" is what the Greeks use for "Easter". Look it up in a Greek dictionary, google translate, or just ask a Greek person. Πάσχα (pascha) means "Easter". I have done all three...and all three sources say that pascha is Easter. So our Bible correctors are already refuted on the issue of the translation.
Though we need no Greek authority to prove that Easter is the correct word here in Acts 12:4. Look at Webster's definition of Easter in ENGLISH: "A festival of the christian church observed in commemoration of our Savior's resurrection. It answers to the pascha or passover of the Hebrews, and most nations still give it this name, pascha, pask, paque." Which is why the early versions (pre-AV 1611) used Passover and Easter interchangeably. Look at the information compiled by Dr. Herb Evans.
Tyndale's Bible
(1525)
The first English Bible, from the so-called "original" Greek, translates "PASCHA" --"paschall lamb" in Matthew 26:17, "ester" in the next verse (26:18), and "esterlambe" in the next verse (26:19). Also, it translates it "pascall lambe" in Mark 14:12 and "ester lambe" in Mark 14:14, 16. Then it has the nerve to translate 1 Cor. 5:7, "Christ oure esterlambe is offered up for us."
The first English Bible, from the so-called "original" Greek, translates "PASCHA" --"paschall lamb" in Matthew 26:17, "ester" in the next verse (26:18), and "esterlambe" in the next verse (26:19). Also, it translates it "pascall lambe" in Mark 14:12 and "ester lambe" in Mark 14:14, 16. Then it has the nerve to translate 1 Cor. 5:7, "Christ oure esterlambe is offered up for us."
The Great Bible
(1539)
The old "Great Bible" renders the Greek "PASCHA" - "passeover" in Matthew 26:17, "Easter" in the next verse (26:18), and “passeover” in the following verse (26:19). Huh? Could the passover feast and the Easter feast (spring feast) really be used synonymously? Well, that rendering could still be a fluke. Yet, the "Great Bible" translates "PASCHA” --the "Jewes Easter" AND "Easter" in John 11:55. Hmmmmm!
The old "Great Bible" renders the Greek "PASCHA" - "passeover" in Matthew 26:17, "Easter" in the next verse (26:18), and “passeover” in the following verse (26:19). Huh? Could the passover feast and the Easter feast (spring feast) really be used synonymously? Well, that rendering could still be a fluke. Yet, the "Great Bible" translates "PASCHA” --the "Jewes Easter" AND "Easter" in John 11:55. Hmmmmm!
The Bishop's Bible
(1568)
And what about the old Bishop's Bible? Well, it translates "PASCHA" - "Easter" twice in John 11:55
and "passeover"in the very next verse (12:1).
And what about the old Bishop's Bible? Well, it translates "PASCHA" - "Easter" twice in John 11:55
and "passeover"in the very next verse (12:1).
(by Dr. Herb Evans)
Also check out this footnote in the Geneva Bible where it calls the Passover "Easter".
Geneva Bible
Deuteronomy 16:
1 Of Easter. 10 Whitsuntide, 13 And the feast of tabernacles. 18 What officers ought to be ordained. 21 Idolatry forbidden.
1 Thou shalt keep the month of Abib, and thou shalt celebrate the Passover unto the Lord thy God: for in the month of Abib the Lord thy God brought thee out of Egypt by night.
Also look at the German Luther Bible. It NEVER even uses "passover", it only uses "Easter".
2 Mose 34:25
Du sollst das Blut meines Opfers nicht opfern neben gesäuertem Brot, und das Opfer des Osterfestes soll nicht über Nacht bleiben bis an den Morgen.
4 Mose 33:3
Sie zogen aus von Raemses am fünfzehnten Tag des ersten Monats, dem zweiten Tage der Ostern, durch eine hohe Hand, daß es alle Ägypter sahen,
2 Chronik 30:18
Auch war des Volks viel von Ephraim, Manasse, Isaschar und Sebulon, die nicht rein waren, sondern aßen das Osterlamm, aber nicht, wie geschrieben steht. Denn Hiskia bat für sie und sprach: Der HERR, der gütig ist, wolle gnädig sein
Matthaeus 26:2
Ihr wisset, daß nach zwei Tagen Ostern wird; und des Menschen Sohn wird überantwortet werden, daß er gekreuzigt werde.
Matthaeus 26:17
Aber am ersten Tag der süßen Brote traten die Jünger zu Jesus und sprachen zu ihm: Wo willst du, daß wir dir bereiten das Osterlamm zu essen?
Matthaeus 26:18
Er sprach: Gehet hin in die Stadt zu einem und sprecht der Meister läßt dir sagen: Meine Zeit ist nahe; ich will bei dir Ostern halten mit meinen Jüngern.
Matthaeus 26:19
Und die Jünger taten wie ihnen Jesus befohlen hatte, und bereiteten das Osterlamm.
Markus 14:1
Und nach zwei Tagen war Ostern und die Tage der süßen Brote. Und die Hohenpriester und Schriftgelehrten suchten, wie sie ihn mit List griffen und töteten.
Markus 14:12
Und am ersten Tage der süßen Brote, da man das Osterlamm opferte, sprachen seine Jünger zu ihm: Wo willst du, daß wir hingehen und bereiten, daß du das Osterlamm essest?
Markus 14:14
und wo er eingeht, da sprechet zu dem Hauswirt: Der Meister läßt dir sagen: Wo ist das Gasthaus, darin ich das Osterlamm esse mit meinen Jüngern?
Markus 14:16
Und die Jünger gingen aus und kamen in die Stadt und fanden's, wie er ihnen gesagt hatte, und bereiteten das Osterlamm.
Markus 15:6
Er pflegte aber ihnen auf das Osterfest einen Gefangenen loszugeben, welchen sie begehrten.
Lukas 2:41
Und seine Eltern gingen alle Jahre gen Jerusalem auf das Osterfest.
Lukas 22:1
Es war aber nahe das Fest der süßen Brote, das da Ostern heißt.
Lukas 22:7
Es kam nun der Tag der süßen Brote, an welchem man mußte opfern das Osterlamm.
Lukas 22:8
Und er sandte Petrus und Johannes und sprach: Gehet hin, bereitet uns das Osterlamm, auf daß wir's essen.
Lukas 22:11
und saget zu dem Hausherrn: Der Meister läßt dir sagen: Wo ist die Herberge, darin ich das Osterlamm essen möge mit meinen Jüngern?
Lukas 22:13
Sie gingen hin und fanden, wie er ihnen gesagt hatte, und bereiteten das Osterlamm.
Lukas 22:15
Und er sprach zu ihnen: Mich hat herzlich verlangt, dies Osterlamm mit euch zu essen, ehe denn ich leide.
Johannes 2:13
Und der Juden Ostern war nahe, und Jesus zog hinauf gen Jerusalem.
Johannes 2:23
Als er aber zu Jerusalem war am Osterfest, glaubten viele an seinen Namen, da sie die Zeichen sahen, die er tat.
Johannes 6:4
Es war aber nahe Ostern, der Juden Fest.
Johannes 11:55
Es war aber nahe das Ostern der Juden; und es gingen viele aus der Gegend hinauf gen Jerusalem vor Ostern, daß sie sich reinigten.
Johannes 12:1
Sechs Tage vor Ostern kam Jesus gen Bethanien, da Lazarus war, der Verstorbene, welchen Jesus auferweckt hatte von den Toten.
Johannes 13:1
Vor dem Fest aber der Ostern, da Jesus erkannte, daß seine Zeit gekommen war, daß er aus dieser Welt ginge zum Vater: wie hatte er geliebt die Seinen, die in der Welt waren, so liebte er sie bis ans Ende.
Johannes 18:28
Da führten sie Jesum von Kaiphas vor das Richthaus. Und es war früh; und sie gingen nicht in das Richthaus, auf das sie nicht unrein würden, sondern Ostern essen möchten.
Johannes 18:39
Ihr habt aber eine Gewohnheit, daß ich euch einen auf Ostern losgebe; wollt ihr nun, daß ich euch der Juden König losgebe?
Johannes 19:14
Es war aber der Rüsttag auf Ostern, um die sechste Stunde. Und er spricht zu den Juden: Sehet, das ist euer König!
Apostelgeschichte 12:4
Da er ihn nun griff, legte er ihn ins Gefängnis und überantwortete ihn vier Rotten, je von vier Kriegsknechten, ihn zu bewahren, und gedachte, ihn nach Ostern dem Volk vorzustellen.
Apostelgeschichte 20:6
Wir aber schifften nach den Ostertagen von Philippi bis an den fünften Tag und kamen zu ihnen gen Troas und hatten da unser Wesen sieben Tage.
1 Korinther 5:7
Darum feget den alten Sauerteig aus, auf daß ihr ein neuer Teig seid, gleichwie ihr ungesäuert seid. Denn wir haben auch ein Osterlamm, das ist Christus, für uns geopfert.
1 Korinther 5:8
Darum lasset uns Ostern halten nicht im alten Sauerteig, auch nicht im Sauerteig der Bosheit und Schalkheit, sondern im Süßteig der Lauterkeit und der Wahrheit.
Hebraeer 11:28
Durch den Glauben hielt er Ostern und das Blutgießen, auf daß, der die Erstgeburten erwürgte, sie nicht träfe.
So our terms "Easter" and "Passover" are obviously interchangeable, but can we prove that 'Easter' is not an error in Acts 12:4 WITHOUT using these outside sources? Yes. There are two ways we can do this.
1.) Believe our final authority (KJB) and just accept "Easter" as the correct reading without studying it out. (take God at His word)
Or....
2.) Look at the context of the verse in question (Acts 12:4) and see if Easter is correct.
Since point #1 didn't happen work for our Bible corrector, I will try point #2.
Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. Peter therefore was kept in prison: but prayer was made without ceasing of the church unto God for him.
Let's examine the facts here:
1.) After Herod "proceeded further to take Peter also" the days of unleavened bread occured. (Acts 12:3).
2.) The days of unleavened bread were AFTER the Jewish Passover....
Exodus 12:13-18:
"And the blood shall be to you for a token upon the houses where ye are: and when I see the blood, I will pass over you, and the plague shall not be upon you to destroy you, when I smite the land of Egypt.
14 And this day shall be unto you for a memorial; and ye shall keep it a feast to the LORD throughout your generations; ye shall keep it a feast by an ordinance for ever.
15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.
16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.
17 And ye shall observe the feast of unleavened bread; for in this selfsame day have I brought your armies out of the land of Egypt: therefore shall ye observe this day in your generations by an ordinance for ever.
18 In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even."
Numbers 28:16-18:
"And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the LORD.
17 And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten.
18 In the first day shall be an holy convocation;ye shall do no manner of servile work therein:"
Deuteronomy 16:1-8:
"Observe the month of Abib (April), and keep the passover unto the LORD thy God: for in the month of Abib the LORD thy God brought thee forth out of Egypt by night.
2 Thou shalt therefore sacrifice the passover unto the LORD thy God, of the flock and the herd, in the place which the LORD shall choose to place his name there.
3 Thou shalt eat no leavened bread with it; seven days shalt thou eat unleavened bread therewith, even the bread of affliction: for thou camest forth out of the land of Egypt in haste: that thou mayest remember the day when thou camest forth out of the land of Egypt all the days of thy life.
4 And there shall be no leavened bread seen with thee in all thy coast seven days; neither shall there any thing of the flesh, which thou sacrificedst the first day at even, remain all night until the morning.
5 Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy gates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee:
6 But at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt.
7 And thou shalt roast and eat it in the place which the LORD thy God shall choose: and thou shalt turn in the morning, and go unto thy tents.
8 Six days thou shalt eat unleavened bread: and on the seventh day shall be a solemn assembly to the LORD thy God: thou shalt do no work therein."
3.) Question: Since the passover was over (Acts 12:3), would Herod be wanting to wait a WHOLE YEAR until the next Passover to kill Peter? Or, would he be wanting to wait a FEW DAYS to kill Peter on Easter?
Yep, Easter is the correct choice of words here. But even IF it was referring to the Jewish Passover, Easter is still a correct word choice (being that the words are interchangeable).
See an entire video on this done by Dr. Sam Gipp https://www.youtube.com/watch?
Now I will examine what Rick Norris (not Chuck) has to say about Acts 12:4. Norris's message in red font.
NORRIS (not Chuck): One English Bible on the KJV-only view’s line has a different rendering than the KJV at Acts 12:4. David Cloud claimed that “all of the English Bibles from Tyndale to the KJV 1611 (the Cranmer, Coverdale, Matthews, Bishops’, Geneva, Great) use the word ‘Easter” in Acts 12:4” (Bible Version Question, p. 158). However, the 1560 Geneva Bible and 1599 Tomson’s New Testament actually have “passover” at Acts 12:4. David Daniels reprinted this verse as found in a 1611 edition of the Bible printed in London by the King’s printer that has “Passover,“ noting that it was an edition of the Geneva Bible (Answers, pp. 79-82). Is this a mistaken rendering in the KJV-only line?
HOSS: Yes, the Geneva Bible did not use Easter except for in footnotes. Yes, David Cloud often has some faulty information. Is the Geneva in error? Yes, in this context (Acts 12:4) the only rendering of pascha should be Easter. You can just about always substitute "Passover" for "Easter" (Passover is one of Easter's definitions) but Easter is NOT one of Passover's definitions. Passover is always a Jewish Feast, but Easter can refer to the Jewish or Pagan feast (as I already showed).
HOSS: Yes, the Geneva Bible did not use Easter except for in footnotes. Yes, David Cloud often has some faulty information. Is the Geneva in error? Yes, in this context (Acts 12:4) the only rendering of pascha should be Easter. You can just about always substitute "Passover" for "Easter" (Passover is one of Easter's definitions) but Easter is NOT one of Passover's definitions. Passover is always a Jewish Feast, but Easter can refer to the Jewish or Pagan feast (as I already showed).
NORRIS (not Chuck): Daniels, a KJV-only author, wrote: “’Passover’ is not the correct translation of pascha in this single New Testament passage” (Answers, p. 77). Floyd Jones claimed that “the King James translators realized that to render ‘pascha’ as ‘Passover’ in this instance was both impossible and erroneous” (Which Version, p. 51). Kelly Gallagher contended that “it would be a mistake to translate this Passover because the context speaks of being ‘in the days of unleavened bread’” (Perfect Bible, p. 63). Sam Gipp asserted that “Herod could not possibly have been referring to the Passover in his statement concerning Easter” (Answer Book, p. 7). Again Gipp declared: “It most certainly did not refer to the Jewish Passover” (p. 8). Jack Moorman maintained that “it is precisely in this one passage that ’Easter’ must be used, and the translation ’Passover’ would have conflicted with the immediate context” (Conies, p. 13). Cloud asserted that “Easter” is a proper translation to distinguish it from the Jewish Passover” (Things Hard, p. 199). Ruckman suggested that the KJV’s rendering “Easter” was “an advanced revelation” (Differences in the KJV Editions, p. 18). Ruckman maintained that “Herod, being a Roman (see the context), kept Easter” (Alexandrian, Part Three, p. 26). James Rasbeary asserted that “Easter was a pagan holiday that the pagan king Herod was going to observe” (What’s Wrong, p. 217). In his sermon entitled “What Did Jesus Write,“ Mickey Carter stated: “You had the Jewish feast of the Passover followed by the seven days of unleavened bread. Then you had the pagan Easter celebration of Easter and the text calls it Herod’s Easter. It ought to be Easter” (Revival Fires, Nov., 2006, p. 14). Have these KJV-only authors proved that the rendering “Passover” is an error of translation in their line of good Bibles?
HOSS: Your only question in that paragraph was "Have these KJV-only authors proved that the rendering “Passover” is an error of translation in their line of good Bibles?" The answer is yes. Their works have proven that. (though the amount of their work that you quoted does not prove anything)
HOSS: Your only question in that paragraph was "Have these KJV-only authors proved that the rendering “Passover” is an error of translation in their line of good Bibles?" The answer is yes. Their works have proven that. (though the amount of their work that you quoted does not prove anything)
NORRIS (not Chuck): On the other hand, D. A. Waite wrote: “I would say certainly that ’passover’ would not be a wrong rendering, yet since they were carrying on as they were, ’Easter’ would be a good rendering also because it was at the same time” (Defending the KJB, p. 247). The 2003 New Pilgrim Bible with KJV-only consulting editors Jerry Rockwell and Douglas Stauffer has this note at Acts 12:4: “Easter. This was the Passover time, when the Jewish people kept the feast in memory of the first Passover” (p. 1544). Michael Williams defined Easter in the KJV as “Passover” (KJ Old English Word Definition, p. 7). Thus, all KJV-only advocates don’t seem to agree that the rendering “Passover” at this verse would be an error.
HOSS: Agreed, we KJB believers do not hold the same beliefs on every little issue. What we have in common is that we believe that the KJB is always right. However, what did YOU prove?
HOSS: Agreed, we KJB believers do not hold the same beliefs on every little issue. What we have in common is that we believe that the KJB is always right. However, what did YOU prove?
NORRIS (not Church): Waite’s Defined KJB has this definition for Easter: “Ishtar--ancient pagan festival” (p. 1451). It added: “Easter was originally the name of a pagan spring festival that occurred at about the same time as the Passover” (p. 1451). Cloud’s Way of Life Encyclopedia defined Easter as “a pagan holiday (Acts 12:4)” (p. 127). In his tract “King James Bible Dictionary,“ O. Ray Smith defined “Easter” as “Ishtar, ancient pagan festival.“ Are these KJV-only definitions correct? Did these sources follow sound procedures in claiming these as correct definitions for the Greek word used at Acts 12:4? Are the denotations and connotations of the preserved Greek word pascha the same as those offered for the English word Easter? Do these definitions make the rendering “Easter” into an acceptable dynamic equivalency? Would these definitions be valid for Tyndale’s many uses of “Easter” in the N. T. and for Coverdale’s many uses including some in the Old Testament?
HOSS: Ah, very slick of you. You said "Are these KJV-only definitions correct? Did these sources follow sound procedures in claiming these as correct definitions for the Greek word used at Acts 12:4?" Those sources you quoted were NOT even talking about the Greek word, they were talking about the English word. As for the Greek word "pascha", I have the testimony of a 1st generation Greek that says that "pascha has always meant Easter to a Greek". Not to mention Greek dictionaries and google translate. So what do you mean "dynamic equivalency"? Easter is a literal translation! I am starting to wonder if you even know Greek....
HOSS: Ah, very slick of you. You said "Are these KJV-only definitions correct? Did these sources follow sound procedures in claiming these as correct definitions for the Greek word used at Acts 12:4?" Those sources you quoted were NOT even talking about the Greek word, they were talking about the English word. As for the Greek word "pascha", I have the testimony of a 1st generation Greek that says that "pascha has always meant Easter to a Greek". Not to mention Greek dictionaries and google translate. So what do you mean "dynamic equivalency"? Easter is a literal translation! I am starting to wonder if you even know Greek....
NORRIS (not Chuck): Why do some KJV-only authors think that “Passover” would be an error at this verse? Cloud wrote that “the Easter of Acts 12:4 occurred after the Passover” (Things Hard, p. 199). Thomas Holland claimed: “If the word is translated as Passover we have the Days of Unleavened Bread coming before the Passover” (Crowned, p. 185). Likewise, Daniels asserted: “The Bible tells us clearly: Passover is before the Days of Unleavened Bread, not after” (Answers, p. 78). Ruckman also maintained that “days of unleavened bread” at Acts 12:3 “show that the Passover was past” (King James Onlyism, p. 76). Steven White also asserted that the Greek word “in Acts 12:4 cannot refer to the Jewish Passover, because technically, it was now over” (White’s Dictionary, I, p. 373). Concerning this verse in his multi-volume commentary, David Sorenson wrote: “Passover had already passed. It was the week of the Feast of Unleavened Bread which always takes place after Passover” (p. 418). Gipp wrote that “no event following the 14th is ever referred to as the Passover” (Answer Book, p. 7). Gipp contended that “the days of unleavened bread are NEVER referred to as the Passover” (p. 7). Moorman maintained that “Scripture does not use the word ’Passover’ to refer to the entire period” (Conies, p. 14). In its note for this verse, The Rock of Ages Study Bible asserted: “The Passover had passed according to Lev. 23:4-8 which was the day before the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Herod was celebrating his feast of Ishtar (Easter)“ (p. 1544). These authors present some verses that would seem to support their statements. However, their broad-sweeping absolute statements are not accurate when all the Bible is consulted.
HOSS: Perhaps, but finding error in a man's statement about the Bible is different than finding error in the Holy Bible.
HOSS: Perhaps, but finding error in a man's statement about the Bible is different than finding error in the Holy Bible.
NORRIS (not Chuck): Comparing Scripture with Scripture, Luke, who was also the human writer of the book of Acts, clearly used the Greek word pascha to refer to either the entire period--the one day of Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread or as an acceptable name for the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Luke wrote: “Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover” (Luke 22:1). Along with Luke 22:1, the above KJV-only statements also ignore Ezekiel 45:21 where the Passover is referred to as “a feast of seven days.” In Ezekiel 45:21, the name “Passover” was clearly used for or used to include the feast of Unleavened Bread, which is a feast of seven days. In Matthew 26:17, the name “Passover” was used for a time described as “the first day of the feast of unleavened bread.” After Jesus and his disciples had already observed the feast of Passover (Luke 22:14-15; John 13:1), the same Greek word was still used for a time when the feast of unleavened bread was in progress (John 18:28).
HOSS: Okay, but that doesn't answer my argument.
Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. Peter therefore was kept in prison: but prayer was made without ceasing of the church unto God for him.
Let's examine the facts here:
1.) After Herod "proceeded further to take Peter also" the days of unleavened bread occured. (Acts 12:3).
2.) The days of unleavened bread were AFTER the Jewish Passover....
Exodus 12:13-18:
"And the blood shall be to you for a token upon the houses where ye are: and when I see the blood, I will pass over you, and the plague shall not be upon you to destroy you, when I smite the land of Egypt.
14 And this day shall be unto you for a memorial; and ye shall keep it a feast to the LORD throughout your generations; ye shall keep it a feast by an ordinance for ever.
15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.
16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.
17 And ye shall observe the feast of unleavened bread; for in this selfsame day have I brought your armies out of the land of Egypt: therefore shall ye observe this day in your generations by an ordinance for ever.
18 In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even."
Numbers 28:16-18:
"And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the LORD.
17 And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten.
18 In the first day shall be an holy convocation;ye shall do no manner of servile work therein:"
Deuteronomy 16:1-8:
"Observe the month of Abib (April), and keep the passover unto the LORD thy God: for in the month of Abib the LORD thy God brought thee forth out of Egypt by night.
2 Thou shalt therefore sacrifice the passover unto the LORD thy God, of the flock and the herd, in the place which the LORD shall choose to place his name there.
3 Thou shalt eat no leavened bread with it; seven days shalt thou eat unleavened bread therewith, even the bread of affliction: for thou camest forth out of the land of Egypt in haste: that thou mayest remember the day when thou camest forth out of the land of Egypt all the days of thy life.
4 And there shall be no leavened bread seen with thee in all thy coast seven days; neither shall there any thing of the flesh, which thou sacrificedst the first day at even, remain all night until the morning.
5 Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy gates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee:
6 But at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt.
7 And thou shalt roast and eat it in the place which the LORD thy God shall choose: and thou shalt turn in the morning, and go unto thy tents.
8 Six days thou shalt eat unleavened bread: and on the seventh day shall be a solemn assembly to the LORD thy God: thou shalt do no work therein."
3.) Question: Since the passover was already over (Acts 12:3), would Herod be wanting to wait a WHOLE YEAR until the next Passover to kill Peter? Or, would he be wanting to wait a FEW DAYS to kill Peter on Easter?
Yes, in this context (Acts 12:4) the only rendering of pascha should be Easter. You can just about always substitute "Passover" for "Easter" (Passover is one of Easter's definitions) but Easter is NOT one of Passover's definitions. Passover is always a Jewish Feast, but Easter can refer to the Jewish or Pagan feast (as I already showed).
NORRIS (not Chuck): Moorman declared: “As the Passover had already been observed, and the days of unleavened bread were in progress, and yet Herod was still waiting for ‘after pascha;’ we can only conclude that the word must be taken in a broader sense” (Conies, p. 14). Is that the only valid conclusion? In his tract entitled “Easter or Passover,” Raymond Blanton wrote: “Herod did not intend to bring Peter forth to the people after the days of unleavened bread but after ’pascha’” (p. 2). Moorman and Blanton’s statements are based on their incorrect assumption that the Greek word pascha could not be used to include or as a name for the days of unleavened bread. In Acts 12:3, Luke stated: “Then were the days of unleavened bread.” In the context and considering Luke 22:1, there is no problem with understanding Luke to be using “pascha” in Acts 12:4 as a name for or including the feast of unleavened bread. Thus, Herod could have been waiting for the end of the days or feast of unleavened bread, which is called the Passover (Luke 22:1). On the other hand, concerning “after Easter” in the KJV, Edmunds and Bell wrote: “Neither Herod nor Peter nor any other man in Judea could have told when that would be” (Discussion, p. 33). KJV-only author Charles Turner wrote: “There was no such holiday as Easter at the time of the writing of the book of Acts. The translators have introduced a meaning into the text which was not intended by Luke the author” (Biblical Bible Translating, Assignment 26, p. 4).
HOSS: Let's look at your Luke 22 passage.
Luke 22:
[1] Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.
[2] And the chief priests and scribes sought how they might kill him; for they feared the people.
[3] Then entered Satan into Judas surnamed Iscariot, being of the number of the twelve.
[4] And he went his way, and communed with the chief priests and captains, how he might betray him unto them.
[5] And they were glad, and covenanted to give him money.
[6] And he promised, and sought opportunity to betray him unto them in the absence of the multitude.
[7] Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed.
[8] And he sent Peter and John, saying, Go and prepare us the passover, that we may eat.
Matthew 26:18 And he said, Go into the city to such a man, and say unto him, The Master saith, My time is at hand; I will keep the passover at thy house with my disciples.
Obviously "THE FEAST of unleavened bread" is defined in this context as ONE DAY, (the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed), that one day is the Passover. Luke 22:1 does not say "the DAYS of unleavened bread", it says "THE FEAST" and then defines that as Easter.
I know that it is only referring to the Passover (and not the full 7 days) is because Christ said "I will keep the Passover at thy house".....but Christ only kept ONE NIGHT. Christ was crucified and could not keep a week long feast, He was referring to one night. If Christ had said he was going to keep a week-long feast and then only kept one day of it, that would be a lie. (and God cannot lie, Titus 1:2)
Dr. Peter Ruckman says,
" Note that "the feast of unleavened bread" in verse 1 is defined as "the DAY of unleavened bread" in verse 7. This means that "the feast of unleavened bread" in verse 1 is not the seven-day feast that starts the day after Passover (Lev. 23:5-6). The Passover is called "the feast of unleavened bread" here because the Passover lamb was to be eaten with bread (Exod. 12:8, 18; Num. 9:11; Deut. 16:2-3).
The reason this is so important is because all the critics of the AV say that the word "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is a mistake; the proper translation should be "Passover" (once again the NKJV reads with the NASV and NIV). But Acts 12:4 couldn't possibly be a reference to the Passover, for "Then were the DAYS [plural] of unleavened bread" (Acts 12:3). "The DAY [singular] of unleavened bread"--the Passover (Luke 22:1;7)--was over and done with (Lev. 23:5-6). "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is obviously a pagan feast--celebrated by a pagan, Roman Idumean (Edomite) who worshipped "Ashtaroth" (Judg. 2:13, 1:6; 1 Sam. 7:3; 1 Kings 11:5; 2 Kings 23:13)--that conincided with the seven-day Feast of Unleavened Bread (Acts 12:3)--NOT Passover." (The Book of Luke, Bible Believer's Commentary Series by Dr. Peter S. Ruckman)
So there went your Luke 22:1 proof text. And as for your Turner quote, it means nothing to me. Turner is not my authority on anything. (but Easter WAS around during Acts)
HOSS: Okay, but that doesn't answer my argument.
Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. Peter therefore was kept in prison: but prayer was made without ceasing of the church unto God for him.
Let's examine the facts here:
1.) After Herod "proceeded further to take Peter also" the days of unleavened bread occured. (Acts 12:3).
2.) The days of unleavened bread were AFTER the Jewish Passover....
Exodus 12:13-18:
"And the blood shall be to you for a token upon the houses where ye are: and when I see the blood, I will pass over you, and the plague shall not be upon you to destroy you, when I smite the land of Egypt.
14 And this day shall be unto you for a memorial; and ye shall keep it a feast to the LORD throughout your generations; ye shall keep it a feast by an ordinance for ever.
15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.
16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.
17 And ye shall observe the feast of unleavened bread; for in this selfsame day have I brought your armies out of the land of Egypt: therefore shall ye observe this day in your generations by an ordinance for ever.
18 In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even."
Numbers 28:16-18:
"And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the LORD.
17 And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten.
18 In the first day shall be an holy convocation;ye shall do no manner of servile work therein:"
Deuteronomy 16:1-8:
"Observe the month of Abib (April), and keep the passover unto the LORD thy God: for in the month of Abib the LORD thy God brought thee forth out of Egypt by night.
2 Thou shalt therefore sacrifice the passover unto the LORD thy God, of the flock and the herd, in the place which the LORD shall choose to place his name there.
3 Thou shalt eat no leavened bread with it; seven days shalt thou eat unleavened bread therewith, even the bread of affliction: for thou camest forth out of the land of Egypt in haste: that thou mayest remember the day when thou camest forth out of the land of Egypt all the days of thy life.
4 And there shall be no leavened bread seen with thee in all thy coast seven days; neither shall there any thing of the flesh, which thou sacrificedst the first day at even, remain all night until the morning.
5 Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy gates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee:
6 But at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt.
7 And thou shalt roast and eat it in the place which the LORD thy God shall choose: and thou shalt turn in the morning, and go unto thy tents.
8 Six days thou shalt eat unleavened bread: and on the seventh day shall be a solemn assembly to the LORD thy God: thou shalt do no work therein."
3.) Question: Since the passover was already over (Acts 12:3), would Herod be wanting to wait a WHOLE YEAR until the next Passover to kill Peter? Or, would he be wanting to wait a FEW DAYS to kill Peter on Easter?
Yes, in this context (Acts 12:4) the only rendering of pascha should be Easter. You can just about always substitute "Passover" for "Easter" (Passover is one of Easter's definitions) but Easter is NOT one of Passover's definitions. Passover is always a Jewish Feast, but Easter can refer to the Jewish or Pagan feast (as I already showed).
NORRIS (not Chuck): Moorman declared: “As the Passover had already been observed, and the days of unleavened bread were in progress, and yet Herod was still waiting for ‘after pascha;’ we can only conclude that the word must be taken in a broader sense” (Conies, p. 14). Is that the only valid conclusion? In his tract entitled “Easter or Passover,” Raymond Blanton wrote: “Herod did not intend to bring Peter forth to the people after the days of unleavened bread but after ’pascha’” (p. 2). Moorman and Blanton’s statements are based on their incorrect assumption that the Greek word pascha could not be used to include or as a name for the days of unleavened bread. In Acts 12:3, Luke stated: “Then were the days of unleavened bread.” In the context and considering Luke 22:1, there is no problem with understanding Luke to be using “pascha” in Acts 12:4 as a name for or including the feast of unleavened bread. Thus, Herod could have been waiting for the end of the days or feast of unleavened bread, which is called the Passover (Luke 22:1). On the other hand, concerning “after Easter” in the KJV, Edmunds and Bell wrote: “Neither Herod nor Peter nor any other man in Judea could have told when that would be” (Discussion, p. 33). KJV-only author Charles Turner wrote: “There was no such holiday as Easter at the time of the writing of the book of Acts. The translators have introduced a meaning into the text which was not intended by Luke the author” (Biblical Bible Translating, Assignment 26, p. 4).
HOSS: Let's look at your Luke 22 passage.
Luke 22:
[1] Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.
[2] And the chief priests and scribes sought how they might kill him; for they feared the people.
[3] Then entered Satan into Judas surnamed Iscariot, being of the number of the twelve.
[4] And he went his way, and communed with the chief priests and captains, how he might betray him unto them.
[5] And they were glad, and covenanted to give him money.
[6] And he promised, and sought opportunity to betray him unto them in the absence of the multitude.
[7] Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed.
[8] And he sent Peter and John, saying, Go and prepare us the passover, that we may eat.
Matthew 26:18 And he said, Go into the city to such a man, and say unto him, The Master saith, My time is at hand; I will keep the passover at thy house with my disciples.
Obviously "THE FEAST of unleavened bread" is defined in this context as ONE DAY, (the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed), that one day is the Passover. Luke 22:1 does not say "the DAYS of unleavened bread", it says "THE FEAST" and then defines that as Easter.
I know that it is only referring to the Passover (and not the full 7 days) is because Christ said "I will keep the Passover at thy house".....but Christ only kept ONE NIGHT. Christ was crucified and could not keep a week long feast, He was referring to one night. If Christ had said he was going to keep a week-long feast and then only kept one day of it, that would be a lie. (and God cannot lie, Titus 1:2)
Dr. Peter Ruckman says,
" Note that "the feast of unleavened bread" in verse 1 is defined as "the DAY of unleavened bread" in verse 7. This means that "the feast of unleavened bread" in verse 1 is not the seven-day feast that starts the day after Passover (Lev. 23:5-6). The Passover is called "the feast of unleavened bread" here because the Passover lamb was to be eaten with bread (Exod. 12:8, 18; Num. 9:11; Deut. 16:2-3).
The reason this is so important is because all the critics of the AV say that the word "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is a mistake; the proper translation should be "Passover" (once again the NKJV reads with the NASV and NIV). But Acts 12:4 couldn't possibly be a reference to the Passover, for "Then were the DAYS [plural] of unleavened bread" (Acts 12:3). "The DAY [singular] of unleavened bread"--the Passover (Luke 22:1;7)--was over and done with (Lev. 23:5-6). "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is obviously a pagan feast--celebrated by a pagan, Roman Idumean (Edomite) who worshipped "Ashtaroth" (Judg. 2:13, 1:6; 1 Sam. 7:3; 1 Kings 11:5; 2 Kings 23:13)--that conincided with the seven-day Feast of Unleavened Bread (Acts 12:3)--NOT Passover." (The Book of Luke, Bible Believer's Commentary Series by Dr. Peter S. Ruckman)
So there went your Luke 22:1 proof text. And as for your Turner quote, it means nothing to me. Turner is not my authority on anything. (but Easter WAS around during Acts)
NORRIS (not Chuck): In his commentary on Acts, Paton Gloag asserted that the Herod of Acts 12 “was strict in the observance of the Mosaic law” (I, p. 415). Gloag added: “According to the strict Jews, it was not reckoned lawful to defile their festal days with executions, and Herod Agrippa prided himself on being a strict observer of the law” (I, p. 416). In his commentary on Acts, William Humphrey reported that Josephus maintained that this Herod was “strongly attached to the Jewish law” (p. 100). In his commentary, Livermore maintained that “Herod forbore to execute Peter during the feast of Passover, out of regard to the custom of the Jews” (p. 177). In his 1645 commentary on Acts, John Lightfoot (1602-1675) noted: “Agrippa, having laid hold upon him, deferred his execution till after the Passover” (p. 322). Likewise, the 1645 Westminster Annotations have this note on “the days of unleavened bread” at Acts 12:4: “These words intimate the cause why he deferred Peter’s execution, for reverence of the Passover, which lasted eight days.”
HOSS: Okay. Those guys can say what ever they want. Meanwhile I just want to look at what the Bible says.
HOSS: Okay. Those guys can say what ever they want. Meanwhile I just want to look at what the Bible says.
NORRIS (not Chuck): Furthermore, the immediate context of Acts 12:4 demonstrated that king Herod was aware that his earlier action of vexing certain of the church “pleased the Jews” (Acts 12:3). The context also revealed that Herod “proceeded further” to take another action that he thought would please the Jews. Would Herod be continuing to please the Jews if he supposedly waited to observe a pagan holiday or festival? Would the celebrations and practices associated with a pagan festival please or offend the Jews? Does the context actually maintain that Herod in proceeding further to take Peter would then do something contradictory to this action intended to please the Jews? It was actually Luke that used the Greek word pascha for the time for which Herod was waiting since this verse gives no indication that Herod was being directly quoted. The verse or context does not say that Herod was keeping or observing pascha. “The people” of Acts 12:4 would be referring to or be including the Jews mentioned in verse 3. According to the context, the Jews were the people that king Herod wanted to please again by his further action. Therefore, nothing in the verse and context proves that Herod could not have been waiting for the Jews to finish keeping their pascha so that he could bring Peter forth and please the Jews again. In other words, the context indicates that Herod did not want to risk displeasing the Jews by executing Peter during their Jewish pascha and may not indicate whether Herod personally had any scruples or principles against executing Peter during a festival. Herod also would have no reason to seek to displease the Jews and to honor and respect the church that he was vexing by waiting until after any claimed church celebration. Therefore, the context clearly supports the understanding that the Jews would be the ones keeping the pascha [also called the feast of unleavened bread] instead of the assertion that Herod had to be the one keeping it. If Herod was also keeping it, the context indicates that it was the Jewish pascha that he would be keeping and not some pagan festival nor any Christian celebration.
HOSS: Wow. That sounded convincing. You know, I might even quit being KJV Only.....--not really.
I doubt that the Jews could care if Peter was killed during the feast...didn't they kill Christ during the feast???
Secondly, it does not say that Herod pleased the Jews by waiting to kill Peter. It says that executing James pleased the Jews.
Acts 12:
[1] Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
[2] And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
[3] And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
[4] And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
Also, YOU THINK THAT HEROD AND THOSE JEWS WERE STRICT LAW KEEPERS?????
LAW: Exodus 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me.
HEROD AND THE JEWS:
Acts 12:
[21] And upon a set day Herod, arrayed in royal apparel, sat upon his throne, and made an oration unto them.
[22] And the people gave a shout, saying, It is the voice of a god, and not of a man.
[23] And immediately the angel of the Lord smote him, because he gave not God the glory: and he was eaten of worms, and gave up the ghost.
These Jews didn't give a rip about the law (apparently). Also, Herod committed two murders (Acts 12:19 "And when Herod had sought for him, and found him not, he examined the keepers, and commanded that they should be put to death...") and was apparently ADVERTISING himself as a god (Acts 12:3 "the angel of the Lord smote him, because he gave not God the glory)
But you think that these Jews and Herod were devout law keepers????
HOSS: Wow. That sounded convincing. You know, I might even quit being KJV Only.....--not really.
I doubt that the Jews could care if Peter was killed during the feast...didn't they kill Christ during the feast???
Secondly, it does not say that Herod pleased the Jews by waiting to kill Peter. It says that executing James pleased the Jews.
Acts 12:
[1] Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
[2] And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
[3] And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
[4] And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
Also, YOU THINK THAT HEROD AND THOSE JEWS WERE STRICT LAW KEEPERS?????
LAW: Exodus 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me.
HEROD AND THE JEWS:
Acts 12:
[21] And upon a set day Herod, arrayed in royal apparel, sat upon his throne, and made an oration unto them.
[22] And the people gave a shout, saying, It is the voice of a god, and not of a man.
[23] And immediately the angel of the Lord smote him, because he gave not God the glory: and he was eaten of worms, and gave up the ghost.
These Jews didn't give a rip about the law (apparently). Also, Herod committed two murders (Acts 12:19 "And when Herod had sought for him, and found him not, he examined the keepers, and commanded that they should be put to death...") and was apparently ADVERTISING himself as a god (Acts 12:3 "the angel of the Lord smote him, because he gave not God the glory)
But you think that these Jews and Herod were devout law keepers????
NORRIS (not Chuck): Moved by the Holy Spirit, Luke could definitely have used the Greek word in the same sense as he did in Luke 22:1. Comparing Scripture with Scripture, the context of Acts 12:3-4 is in agreement with the understanding that this Greek word was used in the same sense as in Luke 22:1. KJV-only author Floyd Jones asserted that “the context is the decisive factor for determining the final connotation of any word or phrase” (Which Version, p. 14). If there remains any uncertainty concerning how the word pascha was used at Acts 12:4, it should be translated and interpreted by the light of what is plain, clear, and certain as in Luke 22:1. Is it not sound reasoning to consider Luke and the Holy Spirit competent and credible witnesses as to the sense in which the Holy Spirit used the word pascha at Luke 22:1 and Acts 12:4?
HOSS: What is funny is that you are not mentioning the context of Luke 22 like I did. Again, this is a slick manuever on your part. ;)
HOSS: What is funny is that you are not mentioning the context of Luke 22 like I did. Again, this is a slick manuever on your part. ;)
NORRIS (not Chuck): In his commentary on Acts, John R. Rice noted that “the feast of unleavened bread and the Passover feast were now called the whole seven days, the Passover” (p. 272). Concerning Acts 12:4, Marvin Vincent indicated that the word was used to refer to “the whole seven days of the feast” (Word Studies, I, p. 508). In his commentary on Acts, Oliver B. Greene wrote: “The Greek in this verse should have been translated ’after the Passover,’ which signifies after the whole festival is over” (II, p. 199). Zodhiates observed that “in a wider sense it [pascha] also included the seven days of unleavened bread, the paschal festival” (Complete Word Study Dictionary, p. 1127). At its note for Matthew 26:3, the Ryrie Study Bible affirmed that “the entire festival was often called ’Passover’” (p. 1468).
HOSS: You can stick to your commentaries, preachers, professors, etc. Meanwhile I'll take the Holy Bible.
HOSS: You can stick to your commentaries, preachers, professors, etc. Meanwhile I'll take the Holy Bible.
NORRIS (not Chuck): The KJV-only authors did not prove their case for claiming that “Easter” must be used at this one verse. If their case was actually valid, these KJV-only authors would also be proving that the KJV should have used “Easter” or some other rendering besides “Passover” at Luke 22:1 and Ezekiel 45:21. On the other hand, Samuel Gipp commented: “If he [Herod] was referring to the Passover, the translation of ’pascha’ as ’Easter’ is incorrect” (Answer, p. 4). Since the overall evidence shows that the Passover was being referred to at Acts 12:4 by Luke, did Gipp in effect acknowledge that the KJV’s rendering is incorrect? If the Greek word is being used to refer to the Passover as the evidence shows, does the rendering of the 1560 Geneva Bible “agree better with the text” than that of the Bishops’ Bible? Would D. A. Waite accept the accurate meaning of the preserved Greek word at Acts 12:4 as the final authority or does he accept the meaning of the English word in the KJV?
HOSS: I'll answer those in order.
Sentence 1: Yes they did.
Sentence 2: No, see my comments on Luke 22:1.
Sentence 3-4: No, that is not what Dr. Gipp did and you know it. He (Gipp) had just proved that Easter was the correct word.
Sentence 5: No.
Sentence 6: I am not sure, ask him.
HOSS: I'll answer those in order.
Sentence 1: Yes they did.
Sentence 2: No, see my comments on Luke 22:1.
Sentence 3-4: No, that is not what Dr. Gipp did and you know it. He (Gipp) had just proved that Easter was the correct word.
Sentence 5: No.
Sentence 6: I am not sure, ask him.
NORRIS (not Chuck): In addition, some KJV-only authors may not be aware of the evidence that indicates that the majority of the KJV translators may not have been responsible for the rendering “Easter” at this verse. Instead they likely supported the Geneva Bible’s rendering “Passover.” Just as the KJV translators changed the Bishops’ Bible’s two other uses of “Easter” at John 11:55 to “Passover,” they may have also changed this third use at Acts 12:4. While Tyndale and Coverdale had used the rendering “Easter” several times for the Jewish Passover, the later English translators had increasingly changed this rendering to “Passover.“ Whiston indicated that a great prelate, the chief supervisor of the KJV, inserted “Easter” back into the text of the KJV at this verse as one of the 14 changes he was said to have made (Life, p. 49). In his 1648 sermon entitled “Truth and Love,“ Thomas Hill also noted that Acts 12:4 “was another place that was altered (as you have heard) to keep up that holy time of Easter, as they would think it” (Six Sermons, p. 25). In his 1727 book, John Currie maintained that at “Acts 12:4 in which place we have Easter, whereas it is the Passover according to the Original, this might be to favor their holy time of Easter, or an Easter communion” (Jus Populi Divinum, p. 38). Was the goal of inserting the rendering “Easter” back into the text at this verse in order to present faithfully the meaning of the Greek word in English or was it intended to give the readers a different meaning? In his volume on Acts in his An Interpretation of the English Bible, B. H. Carroll observed: “Pious Episcopalians and Romanists use this verse of the A. V. to confirm their custom of celebrating Easter” (p. 184). James Woolsey asserted: “To support, from the Scripture, the idea of Easter-Sunday and Easter-day, they suppress the original word which the Holy Ghost moved the inspired penman to use, and employed the Saxon word Easter” (Doctrine, p. 93). Concerning “Easter” at Acts 12:4, James Edmunds and T. S. Bell commented: “The excuse is, that by this utter disregard of what the Holy Spirit really said, the solemn feasts of the Church are sustained” (Discussion, p. 33). The evidence that this rendering was inserted for the purpose of keeping up the Church of England’s celebration of the holy time of Easter should be an embarrassment to those who claim to be defending faithful and accurate translating. Will some KJV-only authors be surprised to find that they have in effect labeled the rendering the majority of the KJV translators may have supported and thus their intended text an error?
HOSS: Again, you produced quotes and assumptions while I gave scripture verses (that I believed were the word of God). You are treating the Bible (English translations, Greek texts, or anything you use as a "Bible") as if it were a man made book that is lost. Bible correctors try and make Christiantity fit into science and human logic. However, God said that HE would preserve His words and so I do not worry about textual critisism, interpolations, late manuscripts, new discoveries, etc. etc.
See these posts
1. What do you believe about the Bible?
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/09/1-what-do-you-believe-about-bible.html
2. How did God communicate, provide and preserve His words?
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/09/2-how-did-god-communicate-provide-and.html
3. What do you believe about the King James Bible as compared to other translations, Greek texts, Lectionaries, etc?
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/09/3-what-do-you-believe-about-king-james.html
Is "King James Onlyism" in the Bible? Answering another Scholarship Only advocate.
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/09/is-king-james-onlyism-in-bible.html
Where was the word of God before 1611?
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/08/where-was-word-of-god-before-1611.html
KJB Inspiration (quote)
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/08/kjb-inspiration-quote.html
False premise of Bible correctors (James White)
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/08/false-premise-of-bible-correctors-james.html
False premise of Bible correctors (Part 2)
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/08/false-premise-of-bible-correctors-part-2.html
HOSS: Again, you produced quotes and assumptions while I gave scripture verses (that I believed were the word of God). You are treating the Bible (English translations, Greek texts, or anything you use as a "Bible") as if it were a man made book that is lost. Bible correctors try and make Christiantity fit into science and human logic. However, God said that HE would preserve His words and so I do not worry about textual critisism, interpolations, late manuscripts, new discoveries, etc. etc.
See these posts
1. What do you believe about the Bible?
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/09/1-what-do-you-believe-about-bible.html
2. How did God communicate, provide and preserve His words?
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/09/2-how-did-god-communicate-provide-and.html
3. What do you believe about the King James Bible as compared to other translations, Greek texts, Lectionaries, etc?
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/09/3-what-do-you-believe-about-king-james.html
Is "King James Onlyism" in the Bible? Answering another Scholarship Only advocate.
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/09/is-king-james-onlyism-in-bible.html
Where was the word of God before 1611?
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/08/where-was-word-of-god-before-1611.html
KJB Inspiration (quote)
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/08/kjb-inspiration-quote.html
False premise of Bible correctors (James White)
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/08/false-premise-of-bible-correctors-james.html
False premise of Bible correctors (Part 2)
http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/08/false-premise-of-bible-correctors-part-2.html
NORRIS (not Chuck): The old Wycliffe’s Bible has “pask” at Acts 12:4, and “pask“ was also its rendering at Ezekiel 45:21 and Luke 22:1. The 1582 Rheims N. T. has “Pasche” at Acts 12:4. The many English-speaking believers who read, accepted, and believed the Geneva Bible understood Acts 12:4 to be referring to the Passover. The 1657 English translation of the authorized Dutch Bible has “Passover” at this verse. The 1569 Spanish and 1602 Spanish Valera have “Pascua” at Acts 12:4 and also at Ezekiel 45:21, Luke 22:1, and Exodus 12:11.
At this verse, an edition of the KJV printed at London in 1660 has this marginal note: “Gr. The Passover.“ Later, the 1853 American Bible Society’s edition of the KJV has a similar note: “Greek the Passover.” Peter Ruckman had claimed that the KJV translators themselves “put the accepted meaning [Passover] in the margin,” but this marginal note is not found in the 1611 edition (Differences, p. 18). James Edmunds and T. S. Bell maintained that the American Bible Society “in its marginal Bibles, prints the words used by the Holy Spirit in the margin, and permits the Saxon idol, Eostre or Easter, to occupy the text of the Word of God” (Discussion, p. 78). They noted that “Dr. Edward Robinson, the distinguished Presbyterian scholar, urged the Society to expunge Easter from the Bible as an utterly false rendering, which no man could justify” (Ibid.).
HOSS: Your quotes are boring me, I would like scriptural proof. I am tired of reading your quotes.
HOSS: Your quotes are boring me, I would like scriptural proof. I am tired of reading your quotes.
NORRIS (not Chuck): In their 1818 Oxford edition of the KJV, George D’Oyly and Richard Mant have this note for “Easter” at Acts 12:4: “’After the passover,‘ that is, after the days of unleavened bread, mentioned at verse 3” (Vol. 3). Concerning Acts 12:4, the 1839 Baptist Edition of the Comprehensive Commentary noted: “pascha, the Passover, certainly so it ought to be read, for it is the same word that is always so rendered; and to insinuate the introducing of a gospel-feast, instead of the Passover, when we have nothing in the N. T. of such a thing, is to mingle Judaism with our Christianity” (p. 65). George Berry’s Interlinear has “Passover” for its rendering of the Greek word in the Textus Receptus. The NKJV Greek-English Interlinear N. T. also has “Passover” as its rendering at this verse (p. 468). “Passover.” Young’s Analytical Concordance defined “Easter” at Acts 12:4 as “Passover” (p. 284). For its entry Easter, a Bible Word List in the back of the Cambridge Standard Edition of the KJV has this explanation: “Passover.” In his introduction to his 1833 revision, Noah Webster wrote that “the original is pascha, Passover” (p. xi). In his 1770 commentary on the KJV, William Dodd has this note: “Instead of after Easter, the Greek would more properly be rendered after the Passover” (Vol. III, p. 78). In his commentary Exploring Acts, John Phillips observed: “Herod’s plan was to execute Peter ’after Easter,’ that is, after the Passover” (p. 226). In a note, Alexander Hislop wrote: “Every one knows that the name ‘Easter,‘ used in our translation of Acts 12:4, refers not to any Christian festival, but to the Jewish Passover” (The Two Babylons, p. 104). In his 1857 Lectures on the Acts, John Dick noted: “The Greek word signifies the passover, and should have been exactly translated, because the historian is speaking not of a Christian, but of a Jewish festival” (p. 180).
HOSS: Your quotes are boring me, I would like scriptural proof. I am tired of reading your quotes.
HOSS: Your quotes are boring me, I would like scriptural proof. I am tired of reading your quotes.
NORRIS (not Chuck): Glenn Conjurske wrote: “The real and only reason why anyone believes that ‘Easter’ is the correct rendering in Acts 12:4 is that ‘Easter’ is the rendering of the King James Version. Their doctrine requires it of them. If for some reason the King James Version had happened to say ‘Christmas’ here instead of ‘Easter,‘ then these men would go off in search of arguments to prove that pascha means ‘Christmas’” (Olde Paths and Ancient Landmarks, July, 1992, p. 154). Since the documented evidence showed that some English readers insert or read a wrong meaning into the rendering “Easter” at this verse, it indicates that “Passover” would be a better, clearer, or more precise rendering.
HOSS: Your quotes are boring me, I would like scriptural proof. I am tired of reading your quotes.
--Eli "Hoss" Caldwell
HOSS: Your quotes are boring me, I would like scriptural proof. I am tired of reading your quotes.
--Eli "Hoss" Caldwell
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