How was Abraham saved? How do you reconcile Romans 4 with James 2?
The Bible teaches
that Abraham received imputed righteousness by faith in Genesis 15:4-6
and that he received justification in Geneses 22:10 with the offering up
of Isaac. The offering up of Isaac is said to have "fulfilled" the
statement "Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for
righteousness" (Jam. 2:23). James said that "faith wrought with his
works, and by works was faith made perfect" (Jam. 2:22). If the Bible
says what it means and means what it says, then Abraham was justified by
faith, but by perfected faith. That is what the text says. The initial
statement in Genesis 15:6 is something that had to be "fulfilled" and
"made perfect". Justification has always been by faith, but in the Old
Testament and the Gospel of the Kingdom justification was by the faith
of man and not the faith of Christ. Man's faith can "draw back" (Heb.
10:39), be "weak" (Rom. 4:19), be "wavering" (Jam. 1:6), and it must be
"tried" (1 Pet. 1:7). However, under Grace we are justified by the faith
of Christ, which is already perfect and proven. Which is why we receive
imputed righteousness and justification at the same time (Rom. 4:1-5:1,
Acts 13:38-39). We which have believed on Christ are justified by the
faith of Christ under Grace (Gal. 2:16, 2:20, 3:22, Rom. 3:22, 1 Thes.
5:23-24, 2 Tim. 2:13, Eph. 3:12, Phil. 3:9). This spiritual blessing was not available to
those before the cross (Gal. 3:22-23). Jesus Christ was obedient unto
death, in full faith in the Father, and we are justified by His faith as
members of His body (Eph. 5:30, 2 Tim. 2:13). Interestingly enough, the
believers of the Gospel of the Kingdom are commanded to keep the faith
of Jesus, His same faith of being obedient unto death (Rev. 14:12, Phil.
2:8, Heb. 4:15, 5:8-9).
Some people (non dispensationalists) disregard James 2 as having anything to do with Abraham's salvation and they teach that it is referring to "justification before men" and how it takes faith plus works to help our fellow man. I
am sure that everyone agrees that we should help people and that faith
alone will not help feed/clothe our friends, only our good works will
help them in that regard. But the issue is that James 2 is not just
about helping people. James 2:14 asks IF faith can "SAVE" a man,
shifting the context to justification and salvation. I don't see where
the Bible teaches that we are to be justified before men, "And he said
unto them, Ye are they which justify yourselves before men; but
God knoweth your hearts: for that which is highly esteemed among men is
abomination in the sight of God." (Luke 16:15) When James asks "what doth it profit" the context is how will it profit
the person, not the brethren...What doth it profit, my brethren, though a
man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him? (Jam.
2:14)
--Eli Caldwell
King James Bible believing (Ps. 12:6-7) Gospel of the Grace of God (Acts 20:24, 1 Cor. 15:1-4) Faith Alone (Eph. 1:7, 1:13, 2:8-9) Pre-Millennial (Rev. 19-20) Pre-Tribulation Rapture (1 Thes. 1:10) Mid-Acts Dispensational Right Division (2 Tim. 2:15, Eph. 3:1-9) anti-Darwinism (Exod 20:11, 31:17) one baptism (Eph. 4:5, 1 Cor. 1:17, 12:13) no signs for today anti-Charismatic (1 Cor. 13:8-13) against the sinner's prayer (John 9:31, Isa. 59:1-2) against the Flat Earth Hoax (Isa. 40:22, Job 26:7)
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- Errors of Acts 28 Dispensationalism
- Sinner's Prayer = False Gospel
- Why I am not a Baptist
- The Hebrew Epistles
- More than one gospel
- What is right division? (2 Tim. 2:15)
- James White's "King James Only Controversy"
- Flat Earth falls flat
- Creation
- Gap Theory
- Campbellite “Church of Christ”
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