Hoss Vs "Eternal Gospel" on "Dispensationalism Debunked"

Discussion from "Dispensationalism Debunked" https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iILf2UEKGIY

Hoss Cartwright: "Old Testament salvation was clearly by works with faith (Rom. 2:13, 10:5), of course salvation today under Grace is "no more of works" (Rom. 6:14, 11:6). "

Eternal Gospel: "If OT salvation was by works, then why does Romans 4:2 say explicitly that Abraham was saved by faith "Abraham believed God and it was counted unto him for righteousness." Then it goes on to say David was saved by faith in Romans 4:6. If you believe the OT saints were saved by works, then you are saying it is possible to be saved by works.....thus Jesus death was totally unnecessary. I mean why do we need a savior if we can save ourselves through following the law? Speaking of which, this verse comes to mind.: Rom_3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin."

Hoss Cartwright: "Thank you for the reply....I encourage you to read the verses I cited and the Scriptures given in the link above. Salvation was clearly by the faith of man plus works in the OT while salvation under Grace is by faith without works. The Law's animal sacrifices did not redeem anyone, they just covered the sins until Christ's death on Calvary (Heb. 10:1-4). The sacrifices were said to make atonement for souls (Exod. 29:36, 30:15, etc.). Nobody had their sins cleared under the Old Testament (Ezek. 34:7), they were only covered until the cross when Christ would offer Himself as a Lamb. I don't know of anyone who believes that justification ever was by keeping the Law. The Pharisees kept the Law, Saul of Tarsus kept the Law, but none of them ever got saved until they put their faith in Christ. What some Dispensationalists (like myself) believe is that salvation in the OT was by the faith of man, not by the faith of Christ as we have under Grace. Romans 4:1-5 tells us that Abraham received imputed righteousness by faith in God's promise to give him a son, James 2:14-26 says that Abraham received justification by making his faith perfect by works. That was in the Old Testament, imputed righteousness was given by faith and justification was given by faith plus works. Read it and see, James 2:14-26. And don't say that James 2 is referring to justification before men, the text says no such thing. Jesus also preached against those who tried to be justified before men in Luke 16:15. Besides that, the context of James 2:15-26 is salvation according to verse 14. Under Grace imputed righteousness and justification is given at the same time upon faith in Christ (Rom. 4:23-5:1) Romans 2:13 plainly says "For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified." Romans 10:5 says "For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them." Paul contrasted Old Testament righteousness of the Law with the righteousness of faith in Romans 10:5-6. Paul went on in Romans to say (in the context of the salvation of the Jews) in Romans 11:6 that "And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work." Notice that he said it is "no more" of works, which means that it had been of works previously. David "DESCRIBED the blessedness" of salvation by grace through faith without works, it does not say that he experienced salvation without works. Salvation by the sufferings of Christ was not understood or preached in the OT, but it was prophesied by the prophets. Peter says that the Spirit that was in them did testify of it, but that it was revealed THAT NOT UNTO THEMSELVES, but unto US they did minister the things which are NOW reported. 

1 Peter 1: 
[10] Of which salvation the prophets have inquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: 
[11] Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow. 
[12] Unto whom it was revealed, that not unto themselves, but unto us they did minister the things, which are now reported unto you by them that have preached the gospel unto you with the Holy Ghost sent down from heaven; which things the angels desire to look into. 

According to Peter, the OT prophets did not understand their prophecies about the sufferings of Christ but that they were for our benefit. The important thing is to understand that salvation is by grace through faith in Christ's shed blood without works NOW (1 Cor. 15:1-4, Rom. 3:19-27, 4:1-5, Eph. 1:13)."

Eternal Gospel: "Act 10:43 To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins. 

The prophets all gave witness to the fact that salvation was by faith in the messiah (Christ). They may not have understood it all, just as we don't understand all of Revelation, because it is in the future. But they all gave witness to this same salvation. Romans 2 is building the case for the conclusion in Romans 3, that no one has ever kept the law and we all come short. 

You can't base any theology on Romans 2 without reading Romans 3 and 4, because they are building on each other. Romans 2 demonstrates that people that say they keep the law are actually not keeping the law, as it also says in James 2:10 "For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all." And as far as James 2 goes, if you are saying that Abraham's works were necessary in the sight of God, that is a direct contradiction of Romans 4. So either the Bible is contradicting itself, or else James 2 is not saying that Abraham was made perfect by works. His faith was made perfect by works in that it profited others, which is what the whole chapter is talking about. We now have that picture of Christ in the Bible lived out by Abraham. It is profitable for us. Just like our faith is dead if we do nothing for God, because it's not doing anything for God. However it is still enough to save us, according to Romans 4. The way most people interpret James 2 it directly contradicts Romans 4...and no surprise because interpretting James 2 to mean our works are necessary for salvation puffs up man's pride and makes people feel like they are doing it themselves. 'Im sorry but I have to agree with Pastor Anderson. If you watch this video he directly refutes the whole dispensational belief system. 

If you read John 3, Jesus is talking to someone who was alive before Christ died and marvelling that he is a master of Israel and doesn't know about being born again. Basically implying that he should know about it. Then Jesus goes on to tell him how whosoever believeth in him shall not perish but have everlasting life, in that famous passage in John 3:16. He is talking directly to someone who is alive before Jesus had died. He is also chastising him for not knowing about it..... doesn't that tell you that Nicodemus should have known about salvation by faith?"


HOSS CARTWRIGHT: "Agreed, salvation has always been based on faith in the LORD (Jesus Christ). However, the Bible makes it clear that the faith of man has to be perfected by works. So you think that James 2 is telling us to justify ourselves before men? The context is salvation (James 2:14), is that salvation before men too? Jesus said NOT to try and justify yourself before men. How did Abraham offering up Isaac benefit anyone? God was the only one who saw what happened, there were no other men around to see it. James is writing to the 12 tribes of Israel and prophetically to Jews in the Last Days (James 1:1, 5:3). The book of James is not written about the Body of Christ or the Dispensation of Grace. You do realize that believers of the Gospel of the Kingdom (believers in the Gospels and Daniel's 70th Week) do not get their sins taken away until the Second Advent don't you? It is at the Second Coming of Christ that Kingdom Gospel believers  will have their sins taken away (Heb. 3:14, 8:8-12, Acts 3:19-21,  Rom. 11:25-27, and 1 Pet. 1:5-9). This is according to Old Testament prophecy such as Zech. 3:9, 8:8, Isa. 1:27, 4:4, 25:9, 27:9, 54:13-14, 59:20, 60:21, Jer. 30:17, 31:31-34, 32:37-42, 33:8, Ezek. 36:24-33, Hos. 2:23, Deut. 30:6, and Joel 3:20-21. The Second Coming is when Christ told the 12 apostles that they would inherit everlasting life (Matt. 19:28-19) and that is what Peter taught (Acts 3:19-21, 1 Pet. 1:5-9). Though this is not true under the Dispensation of Grace (Rom. 6:4, Eph. 3:2). We under grace are now justified by Christ's blood and have now received the atonement (Rom. 5:9-11), our sins are already gone (Col. 2:11). 

How could you say that salvation was by grace through faith without works in the Gospels when 

1.) John the Baptist told people to bring forth good fruits to escape the wrath to come or else they would be cast into the fire (Matt. 3:7-10). 

2.) Jesus said that if you called your brother a fool then you would be in danger of hell fire (Matt. 5:22). 

3.) Jesus gave works required to be the children of God (Matt .5:44-45). 

4.) Jesus told the disciples many times that if they did not forgive men of their trespasses, then the Father would not forgive them (Matt. 5:12-15, 18:21-35). 

5.) Jesus said that you have to hear His sayings and do them in order to be saved (Matt. 5:21-24). 

6.) Jesus said that those who do not bring forth good fruit are hewn down and cast into the fire (Matt. 7:19). 

7.) Jesus said that He would reward everyman according to his works (Matt. 16:27). The "reward" in the context is life after death (16:24-26). 

8.) In Matthew 19:16-30 Jesus told a man to keep the commandments and sell all that he had in order to have eternal life. He then said it was impossible for a rich man to be saved. Notice also that the 12 apostles would inherit everlasting life at the Second Advent. Salvation for believing Israel in past and future dispensations is set at the Second Coming, not the cross. (see the references given above) 

 9.) Matthew 24:42-51 and 25:30 state very clearly that the unprofitable servants will be cast into hell. 

10.) Notice that the reason Jesus will let the Gentile nations into the Kingdom after Daniel's 70th Week is because of their WORKS (taking care of the Lord's brethren) in Matthew 25:34-46. 

 Those are just ten examples from 1 book. There are many others in the other Gospels and all the other non-Pauline books. I did not "interpret" those passages, I just repeated what they said. It is wrong to "interpret" the Bible (2 Pet. 1:20). Now as for the Gospel of John, the book of proof texts for all non-dispensationalists, it does not teach what you say it teaches. The new birth is specifically for Israel as Jesus hinted (John 3:10). Israel was born of God in the OT (Exod. 4:22) and He will beget them again at the Second Advent (1 Pet. 1:3, Isa. 66:8). Under Grace believers are "adopted" (Rom. 8:15, Gal. 4:5-6). NOT "born again" in the sense of John 3, though the principal has application for today. Nobody in the Gospel of John (which is written in the Old Testament) is or was "born again" until chapter 20 when Jesus breathed on the 11 apostles and they received the Holy Ghost. John 1:11-13 makes it clear that they were not sons of God instantly, but they were given the power to "become" the sons of God (1:12).....they did not receive the new birth until the Holy Ghost was given. "He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water. (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)" (John 7:38-39) Notice that Jesus said that He would give eternal life to the sheep (which is not the Gentiles--Matt. 15:24-26) that FOLLOWED Him. 

John 10: 
[27] My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: 
[28] And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. 
[29] My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. 

Under the Gospel of the Kingdom, they had to hear the word of God, follow it, and then they got eternal life. Now the question is, how did they "follow" Christ? We find that out by looking in Matthew 19 verses 21 and 28. Here is the whole passage.... 

Matthew 19: 
[16] And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? 
[17] And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. 
[18] He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, 
[19] Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. 
[20] The young man saith unto him, All these things have I kept from my youth up: what lack I yet? [21] Jesus said unto him, If thou wilt be perfect, go and sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come and follow me. 
[22] But when the young man heard that saying, he went away sorrowful: for he had great possessions. 
[23] Then said Jesus unto his disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven. 
[24] And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God. 
[25] When his disciples heard it, they were exceedingly amazed, saying, Who then can be saved? 
[26] But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible. 
[27] Then answered Peter and said unto him, Behold, we have forsaken all, and followed thee; what shall we have therefore? 
[28] And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. 
[29] And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting life. [30] But many that are first shall be last; and the last shall be first. 

Jesus gave WORKS as requirements for salvation, and that salvation was something that the apostles would inherit at the Second Coming according to verses 28-29 which matches what Peter preached to Israel in Acts 3:19-21 and what Paul said about Israel in Romans 11:25-27. Jesus repeated this teaching in John 12:25-26 "He that loveth his life shall lose it; and he that hateth his life in this world shall keep it unto life eternal. If any man serve me, let him follow me; and where I am, there shall also my servant be: if any man serve me, him will my Father honour." Notice that it is those who hate their life in this world that shall keep it unto life eternal....it also references following Christ SERVING Him. They are the ones that get eternal life according to John 10:27-28. Following Christ is clearly a work and a process. 

Look up all the references to following Christ and see for yourself. http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2015/04/requirements-for-salvation-in-different.html http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2015/09/looking-forward-to-cross.html 

 If you really do think that the Gospels are directly written about the Dispensation of Grace and the Church the Body of Christ, why don't you look at these Scripture references at this link: 

http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2015/04/do-you-really-follow-jesus.html 

Thank you for the questions and advice. I have studied the issue of whether or not salvation has always been by grace through faith without works and I have not seen the evidence of it anywhere. I am still open to the possibility though and I have just read a book on the subject."


ETERNAL GOSPEL: "James 2 is not telling you to justify yourself before men in the same way Jesus was. James 2 says "What doth it profit" Our faith doesn't profit anyone if we don't do any works with it. If a man who is hungry comes up to me and I say "Be filled." it does nothing. There is a spiritual application there as well. If I say "God Bless You" to an unbeliever and don't give them the gospel (the Great Commission)...it profits that person nothing. Most people believe there is a God, few people know the gospel or believe it. That's what that whole chapter is teaching. And Abraham was justified in the sense we could see that his faith was genuine. Otherwise, if you understand it to mean that Abraham was justified before God-it would be a DIRECT CONTRADICTION to Romans 4:2-3. 

How do you explain that? And if you think no one was born again until John 20, how come Jesus told Nicodemus "ye must be born again" in John 3? This was addressed in this sermon, maybe you should watch it because those types of arguments are clearly addressed. But here are the answers to your points: 

1- John was talking to the Pharisees and told them to "bring forth fruits meet for repentance". In other words demonstrate that you have really changed your minds (that's what repentance means)--because the Pharisees were a bunch of hypocrites and liars, and it's very likely they were there for ulterior motives...just like when they flattered Jesus in Matthew 22 and pretended to be sincere in asking about paying taxes. 

2-. The context of the verse is being angry with your brother WITHOUT A CAUSE. Thus calling someone a fool with no cause is a grave matter. That verse does not say that is a sin that will send you to hell in every case....Jesus called the Pharisees fools several times. 

3- The Bible is full of works that we SHOULD do. But there is only one thing we MUST do to be saved...believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. Those are all things we should do, and that is how we should try to live. 

4- This verse is misconstrued to mean they have no forgiveness in the sense that Jesus blood did not cover that sin. However, that understanding would directly contradict Matthew 12:31 where Jesus said ALL manner of sin shall be forgiven men (except the blasphemy against the Holy Spirit). No, what this verse is saying is that if you dont forgive others when they trespass against you, God is going to hold you accountable for all of your sins IN THIS LIFE....and you will start being punished for every thing you do wrong - he'll hold you to that same standard you are holding others to. Yikes! Not something I want. 

5- Nothing in Matthew 5:21-24 says anything about what you said it did. The only thing close is Matthew 5:20 where it says "That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees ye shall in no case enter the kingdom of heaven". We have Christ's righteousness through faith (Php. 3:9), thus our righteousness does exceed that of the Pharisees. 

 6- Jesus said EVERY TREE that bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down and cast into the fire. Not every person is a tree. A tree is somewhere people go to get food from--a prophet (or preacher). A preacher who teaches false doctrine is hopelessly lost in most cases....this is echoed in 2 Peter and in Jude. You will not see the Pope repent and trust Christ tomorrow....nor will you see Billy Graham repent and say everyone must believe in Christ to be saved....nor will you see any other popular "Christian" teacher suddenly start teaching salvation by faith alone....because they would lose all of their money and fame. They are children of the devil headed for hell...there is no hope for them (in most cases). 

7- Have you not heard of the judgment seat of Christ? (2 Corinthians 5) Salvation is NOT a reward...however, we will receive and/or lose rewards based on what we are doing for Jesus Christ. If we go out and win 100 people to Christ, the Bible says we will rule over 100 cities. Our authority in heaven is totally works based. Most people never win a single person to Christ in their entire life....thus most will have ZERO authority. At least they are not in hell, though! 

8-The story of the rich young ruler is often misinterpreted. In Romans 2, it teaches that if you keep all the commandments you will be saved. Then in Romans 3 it goes on to say NO ONE has ever kept all the commandments and NO ONE is righteous. Jesus was simply pointing out that the young ruler, who thought he had kept all the commandments since his youth, failed on commandment number one. He basically demonstrated that money was his God, a violation of the first commandment. And it is true that it is HARD for a rich man to be saved....but with God all things are possible. Go soul winning in a rich neighborhood some time (like I have)....virtually no one will listen to you. 

10- If you interpret this to teach works salvation, you are contradicting hundreds of other scriptures. Most people who are saved at some point in their Christian lives do good works. And unbelievers can do no good works at all, because without faith it is impossible to please God. Thus it can easily be understood in that light. 

Consider the above, even if you don't agree, they are all valid interpretations....and then ask...are the above scriptures being wrested by men to teach some kind of "system of theology" rather than just being understood in light of the rest of the Bible?"

Hoss Cartwright: "Thank you for the further thoughts. And just a note to anyone who may read these comments, I am not saying that I believe works are required for salvation under Grace, only under the Law and the Gospel of the Kingdom. I am a staunch believer and defender of "easy believism" and "once saved always saved" (1 Cor. 15:1-4, Eph. 1:13, Acts 13:38-39).

I am sure that everyone agrees that we should help people and that faith alone will not help feed/clothe our friends, only our good works will help them in that regard. But the issue is that James 2 is not just about helping people. James 2:14 asks IF faith can "SAVE" a man, shifting the context to justification and salvation. I don't see where the Bible teaches that we are to be justified before men, "And he said unto them, Ye are they which justify yourselves before men; but God knoweth your hearts: for that which is highly esteemed among men is abomination in the sight of God." (Luke 16:15) When James asks "what doth it profit" the context is how will it profit the person, not the brethren...What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him? (Jam. 2:14)

The Bible teaches that Abraham received imputed righteousness by faith in Genesis 15:4-6 and that he received justification in Geneses 22:10 with the offering up of Isaac. The offering up of Isaac is said to have "fulfilled" the statement "Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness" (Jam. 2:23). James said that "faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect" (Jam. 2:22). If the Bible says what it means and means what it says, then Abraham was justified by faith, but by perfected faith. That is what the text says. The initial statement in Genesis 15:6 is something that had to be "fulfilled" and "made perfect". Justification has always been by faith, but in the Old Testament and the Gospel of the Kingdom justification was by the faith of man and not the faith of Christ. Man's faith can "draw back" (Heb. 10:39), be "weak" (Rom. 4:19), be "wavering" (Jam. 1:6), and it must be "tried" (1 Pet. 1:7). However, under Grace we are justified by the faith of Christ, which is already perfect and proven. Which is why we receive imputed righteousness and justification at the same time (Rom. 4:1-5:1, Acts 13:38-39). We which have believed on Christ are justified by the faith of Christ under Grace (Gal. 2:16, 2:20, 3:22, Rom. 3:22, 1 Thes. 5:23-24, 2 Tim. 2:13). This spiritual blessing was not available to those before the cross (Gal. 3:22-23). Jesus Christ was obedient unto death, in full faith in the Father, and we are justified by His faith as members of His body (Eph. 5:30, 2 Tim. 2:13). Interestingly enough, the believers of the Gospel of the Kingdom are commanded to keep the faith of Jesus, His same faith of being obedient unto death (Rev. 14:12, Phil. 2:8, Heb. 4:15, 5:8-9). 

You ask about the "born again" statement in John 3. I should probably go ahead and tell you that most dispensational believers do not consider being "born again" something that is entirely applicable to the Dispensation of Grace. We believe that the Bible teaches that Israel was God's firstborn under the Old Covenant (Exod. 4:22, Deut. 14:1-2, 32:18, Hos. 11:1, Isa. 1:2, 44:1-2, 46:3). We believe that the Bible teaches that the nation of Israel will be born again under the New Covenant (Isa. 44:1-4, 66:8). What Christ said in John 3 teaches this as well, notice that it says Nicodemus was a "ruler of the Jews" in verse 1 and then in verse 7 Jesus said "YE must be born again". Who is the "ye" (plural)? According to the context it is Israel, "There was a man of the Pharisees, named Nicodemus, a ruler of THE JEWS: The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, WE know that thou art a teacher come from God....Marvel not that I said unto thee, YE must be born again." (John 3:1-3, 7).  Further proof that Jesus was speaking of the nation of Israel is that He said in John 3:10, "Art thou a master of ISRAEL, and knowest not these things?" Under Grace, as members of the Body of Christ, we are said to be "adopted" but not "born again" (Rom. 8:15, Gal. 4:5). Being adopted is not the same thing as being born again. But this does not mean that we cannot apply the passage in John to us, it does have a similar application since we are new creatures in Christ and regenerated in Him, which is similar to being born again (Gal. 6:15, 2 Cor. 5:17). Most dispensationalists (including myself) will use John 3 as application, just not for the literal doctrinal meaning. 

Anyway, what you asked was "if you think no one was born again until John 20, how come Jesus told Nicodemus "ye must be born again" in John 3?". The reason dispensational believers teach that nobody was born again until the Holy Spirit was given is because without the Holy Spirit, there is no new birth (John 3:5). The Gospel of John is an actual book with 21 chapters, 879 verses, and 19,099 words. We cannot just jump into chapter 3 and ignore the rest of the book (not that you did this). We need to consider John 3 within the context of the book. John already discussed the new birth and he mentions the Holy Spirit again in a few chapters. Here is the first time John mentioned the new birth, "But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." (John 1:12-13). Notice that those that believed on Christ did not become the sons of God, they were given the power to BECOME the sons of God. It was not an instantaneous thing. Also, note in John 3 that Jesus did not command anyone to be born again, He just said that it was something they must do. Being born again requires the Holy Spirit in the believer (John 3:5), and He was not given to those that believe until the Lord was glorified. Notice the following references to the Holy Ghost's coming as future and not yet in the believers.

John 7:
[38] He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
[39] (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)

John 14:
[16] And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;
[17] Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.

John 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.

John 15:26 But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:

John 16:7 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.

As for the 10 points I mentioned on the Gospel of the Kingdom requiring works, I still stand by them. I believe that those are what the Bible plainly teaches. Here are some brief responses to your concerns:

1.)--I agree with your comment, but the text still says that those who do not gring forth the good fruits meet for repentance are hewn down and cast into the fire and he asks them how they will escape the wrath to come. (Matt. 3:7-12)

2.)--The text says in Mathew 5:22 "But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire." If words mean anything, those under the Gospel of the Kingdom who call their brother a "fool" will be in danger of hell fire. That is what it says.

3.)-- I agree that there are good works we should do, but the text of Matthew 5:44-45 says "That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven". These are works for salvation if the words mean what they say.

4.)--I don't understand what you are saying. The passage says that you must forgive others of their trespasses in order for the Lord to forgive you of your trespasses. It doesn't say anything about God punishing saved people, it says He will not forgive them of their trespasses.This teaching is repeated in
(Matt. 6:12-15, 18:21-35, Mark 11:25-26, Luke 6:37, 11:4). This is much different than the doctrine of forgiveness under Grace (compare with Eph. 4:32, Col. 3:13). 

5.)--Sorry, I gave the wrong references. I meant Matthew 7:19-24.

6.)--I think I already addressed this, similar to number 1.

7.)--Yes I know about the Judgement Seat of Christ, and I anticipated that kind of response which is why I specifically stated that "The "reward" in the context is life after death (16:24-26)." It says, "Then said Jesus unto his disciples, If any man will come after me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow me. For whosoever will save his life shall lose it: and whosoever will lose his life for my sake shall find it. For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul? For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works." 

8.)--You said "Jesus was simply pointing out that the young ruler, who thought he had kept all the commandments since his youth, failed on commandment number one. He basically demonstrated that money was his God, a violation of the first commandment. And it is true that it is HARD for a rich man to be saved....but with God all things are possible." However, the text says that Jesus was answering the question "what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?" Jesus did not say that salvation was by grace through faith and not of works lest any man should boast, rather He said "keep the commandments" and "sell all that thou hast and follow me". I take the text for what it says, I do not believe there is any need to "interpret" it (2 Pet. 1:20). We know that Jesus meant what He said because He told the disciples that because they had sold all that they had and followed Him that they would "inherit everlasting life" (Matt. 19:27-28). Jesus commanded the believers of the Gospel of the Kingdom to sell all that they had (Matt. 6:19-34, 8:20, 10:8-10, 13:44-46, 19:16-24, Mark 6:7-9, 10:17-23, Luke 3:8-11, 9:1-4, 12:15-34, Acts 2:44-45, 3:1-6, 4:32-37, 5:1-11).

9.)--I think that you forgot to answer this one. Matthew 24:42-51 and 25:30 state very clearly that the unprofitable servants will be cast into hell. 

10.)--I don't think that I 'interpreted" the passage, I just repeated what it said. Jesus tells the lost nations that they will go to hell for not taking care of His brethren and He tells the saved nations that they will enter the Kingdom because they did take care of His brethren. That is what the text says, no "interpretation" (Matt. 25:31-46).

Thank you again for the advice and sharing your position. "