Dr. Stuarts message is interesting, but far from sound doctrine.
Dr. Stewart pretends that the reconciling of one body where there is neither Jew nor Greek is only a post-Acts 28 truth. That the body of Christ after Acts is not the same as the body of Christ that existed during Acts.
That is non-sensible. There is only ONE body of Christ (1 Cor. 12:12, Eph. 4:4) and it existed during Acts.
Let's see if Dr. Stewart's claims hold up to scripture RIGHTLY divided.
1.) Is Christ the head of the body of Christ during the Acts period or is that only a post-Acts truth?
POST-ACTS: Ephesians 5:23 For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.
ACTS: 1 Corinthians 11:3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.
YES! The body of Christ that existed in Acts has the same relationship to Christ as the body of Christ does after Acts.
2.) The body of Christ in Acts was made possible by the death of Christ, is that true for the body of Christ during Acts?
POST-ACTS: Ephesians 2:[13] But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.[14] For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;[15] Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;[16] And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:
ACTS: 1 Corinthians 10:[16] The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?[17] For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread.[18] Behold Israel after the flesh: are not they which eat of the sacrifices partakers of the alter?[19] What say I then? that the idol is any thing, or that which is offered in sacrifice to idols is any thing?[20] But I say, that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to devils, and not to God: and I would not that ye should have fellowship with devils......[32] Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God:
So in Acts the Corinthians were the church of God, neither Jew nor Gentile, and it was by partaking of Christ's death. See the "one body" in verse 17 by partaking of Christ and then in verses 18 and 20 the body is contrasted from the Jew and Gentiles. Then of course in verse 32 we have the Jew, Gentile, and church of God statement. Is that not what we saw in Ephesians 2?
3.) Is the body of Christ in Acts just a metaphor or is it truly a spiritual body of Christ?
POST-ACTS: Ephesians 4:[3] Endeavouring to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace.[4] There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling;
[5] One Lord, one faith, one baptism,[6] One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
ACTS: 1 Corinthians 6:[15] Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid.[16] What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.[17] But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit.
The passage written during Acts is actually the greatest passage on the body's relation to the head (Christ). The member is actually "one spirit" with Christ. The post-Acts epistles have no such passage as great as 1 Corinthians 6:15-17 on this matter. It is 1 Corinthians 11:3 and Ephesians 5:22-32 explained.
4.) How did the members get in the body? (other than by partaking of Christ)
POST-ACTS: Colossians 2:[10] And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:[11] In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:[12] Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.....Colossians 3:[1] If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God.[2] Set your affection on things above, not on things on the earth.[3] For ye are dead, and your life is hid with Christ in God.....[10] And have put on the new man, which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him:[11] Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.
ACTS: 1 Corinthians 12:[12] For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ.[13] For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.[14] For the body is not one member, but many......Galatians 3:[27] For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.[28] There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus......Romans 6:[3] Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?[4] Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.
We have spiritual baptisms done in both Acts and post-Acts epistles. Does Dr. Stewart expect us to believe that HOW one gets into the body of Christ was revealed during Acts but the body of Christ itself was revealed AFTER Acts???
5.) Is 1 Corinthians 12 use of the word "body" a metaphor or is it literal?
See this post for a very thorough answer http://av1611studyblog.blogspot.com/2014/07/hoss-critiques-dr-wayne-stewart-mid.html
But the obvious answer is "NO". 1 Corinthians 12:12 says, "For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ." It says "so also IS" Christ. Paul did not use terms such as "like" or "as". And verse 13 says that the Spirit baptized them into that body, which was Christ. Is Christ a metaphor? Was the relationship that we looked at in 1 Corinthians 6:15-17 a metaphor? I do realize that Paul likens the spiritual body of Christ to the operation and functions of a human body, but there is no reason to believe that the spiritual body of Christ in 1 Corinthians is a metaphor.
So what the Acts 28 position has done is created TWO BODIES of Christ even though there is only ONE (Eph. 4:4, 1 Cor. 12:12). Which means that the Acts 28 position teaches two Christs which is POLYTHEISM.
--Eli "Hoss" Caldwell
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